Judgment Overview on Taxation Rate for Capital Gains
Introduction
The case before the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) revolves around the determination of the applicable tax rate on long-term capital gains (LTCG) for a private, unlisted company that opted for taxation under Section 115BAA of the Income Tax Act.
Background
The company, for the assessment year 2021-22, initially paid 20% tax on long-term capital gains, which was the applicable rate with indexation for such earnings. However, the Income Tax Department, invoking Section 115BAA, claimed that the applicable rate should be 22%. This claim was supported by the assessing officer and upheld by the Commissioner of Appeals (CIT(A)).
Dispute
The sole issue at stake in this appeal is the appropriate tax rate applicable to the long-term capital gains of the company. The revenue department argues for a uniform tax rate of 22% based on the company’s election under Section 115BAA, while the company contends that the 20% rate should apply as per longstanding provisions concerning LTCG.
Legal Framework
It is crucial to note that Section 115BAA states that it is ‘subject to Sections 112 and 112A,’ which specifically govern the taxation of long-term capital gains. This phrase indicates a hierarchy in the tax provisions and asserts that Section 115BAA cannot override the specific clauses that pertain to capital gains taxation.
Analysis
The Tribunal reviewed the proceedings and found that the determination of a 22% tax rate on long-term capital gains under Section 115BAA not only disregards the statutory hierarchy but also raises concerns regarding the consistency of tax application across similar provisions.
Conclusion
In light of the above examination, the Tribunal concludes that long-term capital gains should be taxed at the rate of 20%, as aligned with the provisions under Sections 112 and 112A, rather than the 22% proposed under Section 115BAA. The decision serves to uphold the legislative intent of maintaining coherence and clarity in tax regulation, ensuring that the rights of taxpayers are protected within the existing legal framework.
उच्चतम न्यायालय ने सीमा शुल्क विभाग द्वारा दायर याचिका पर अडानी एंटरप्राइजेज लिमिटेड, इसके प्रबंध निदेशक राजेश अडानी और अन्य को नोटिस जारी किया।
इनफॉर्मिस्ट की रिपोर्ट के अनुसार, याचिका में सीमा शुल्क, उत्पाद शुल्क और सेवा कर अपीलीय न्यायाधिकरण (सीईएसटीएटी) के फैसले को चुनौती दी गई थी, जिसने कंपनी के खिलाफ विभाग द्वारा शुरू किए गए कारण बताओ नोटिस और संबंधित कार्यवाही को रद्द कर दिया था।
इन्फॉर्मिस्ट के अनुसार, सुप्रीम कोर्ट ने शुक्रवार, 10 अक्टूबर को कहा, “नोटिस जारी करें। हम अगली सुनवाई पर इसका निपटारा करेंगे।”
सीमा शुल्क विभाग ने कथित तौर पर आरोप लगाया है कि अडानी एंटरप्राइजेज ने विदेश व्यापार महानिदेशालय (डीजीएफटी), अहमदाबाद से शुल्क-मुक्त ऋण पात्रता प्रमाणपत्र प्राप्त किए थे। कंपनी ने कथित तौर पर पूर्ववर्ती वृद्धिशील निर्यात संवर्धन योजना के तहत सीमा शुल्क चुकाए बिना इनका इस्तेमाल सोना और चांदी आयात करने के लिए किया।
विभाग ने कहा कि 2008 और 2010 के बीच, अडानी एंटरप्राइजेज ने सीमा शुल्क का भुगतान किए बिना लगभग 31,219.79 किलोग्राम चांदी और 25,432.84 किलोग्राम सोने की छड़ें आयात कीं, जिससे लगभग ₹497.77 मिलियन (₹49.77 करोड़) का शुल्क नुकसान हुआ।
योजना की शर्तें और विभाग के आरोप
इन्फॉर्मिस्ट के अनुसार, डीजीएफटी ने 2003-04 में वृद्धिशील निर्यात संवर्धन योजना शुरू की थी, जिसके तहत निर्यातकों को पिछले वर्ष की तुलना में उनके वृद्धिशील निर्यात के 10% के बराबर शुल्क क्रेडिट अर्जित करने की अनुमति दी गई थी, बशर्ते कि उन्होंने कम से कम 25% की वृद्धि हासिल की हो।
इन क्रेडिटों का उपयोग ड्यूटी-फ्री क्रेडिट एनटाइटलमेंट (DFCE) लाइसेंस के माध्यम से वस्तुओं को शुल्क-मुक्त आयात करने के लिए किया गया, इस शर्त के साथ कि आयात को निर्यातित उत्पादों से जोड़ा जाना चाहिए।
सीमा शुल्क विभाग ने तर्क दिया कि अडानी एंटरप्राइजेज को सोने और चांदी की छड़ें आयात करने का अधिकार नहीं है, क्योंकि उनका उसके निर्यात उत्पादों, जो कि कटे और पॉलिश किए गए हीरे हैं, से कोई संबंध नहीं है।
इसमें कहा गया है कि ऐसे बार को हीरे के निर्यात के लिए इनपुट या पुनःपूर्ति के रूप में नहीं माना जा सकता है, क्योंकि कंपनी ने हीरे को उसी रूप में निर्यात किया है, न कि आभूषण के रूप में, जैसा कि इन्फॉर्मिस्ट ने बताया है।
न्यायाधिकरण का पूर्व निर्णय
वर्ष 2012 में सीमा शुल्क विभाग ने एक नोटिस जारी कर शुल्क की मांग की थी तथा सीमा शुल्क अधिनियम, 1962 की धारा 29 के तहत जब्ती और जुर्माने का प्रस्ताव दिया था।
हालांकि, बाद में सीईएसटीएटी ने मामले को खत्म करने के लिए निर्णायक प्राधिकारी के विचार को बरकरार रखा और कहा, “…प्रतिवादियों (अडानी एंटरप्राइजेज) द्वारा माल के आयात के लिए वैध डीएफसीई लाइसेंस का इस्तेमाल किया गया है, इसलिए, हमें शुल्क की मांग या माल की जब्ती या जुर्माना लगाने का कोई कारण नहीं दिखता है।”
Supreme Court Seeks Response from Finance Ministry on Securities Transaction Tax Challenge
New Delhi: The Supreme Court on Monday sought a response from the finance ministry regarding a petition challenging the constitutional validity of the securities transaction tax (STT). This tax is a direct levy on the purchase and sale of securities transacted on recognized stock exchanges in India.
A bench led by Justice JB Pardiwala issued a notice to the Centre in response to a plea by Aseem Juneja, a trader, who alleges that the STT is illegal, uncons titutional, and violates the principle of double taxation. According to Juneja, a stock market trader is required to pay capital gains tax on profits from market transactions, in addition to the STT levied on the same transactions.
Juneja’s petition argues that this situation amounts to double taxation, emphasizing that “STT is the only tax in India imposed on the mere act of carrying out a profession” and must be paid regardless of whether a profit is made.
He further alleges that the STT violates several constitutional rights, including the right to equality, the right to trade or earn a livelihood, and the fundamental right to live with dignity.
The plea alleged that the securities transaction tax violated the principle of double taxation.
Bombay High Court Issues Notice to Income Tax Department Over Seized Ornaments
The Nagpur Bench of the Bombay High Court has issued a notice to the Income Tax Department regarding a petition filed by Chaitanya Kochar, who is seeking the return of gold and silver ornaments that were seized during a search conducted back in 2007. The matter was brought before a Division Bench of Justices Anil L. Pansare and Siddheshwar S. Thombre on September 26, 2025.
In his petition, Kochar contended that officers from the Income Tax Department had conducted a search at his premises in 2007, resulting in the seizure of 4,275.15 grams of gold jewellery, 39,075 grams of silver jewellery, and several documents. Following the search, assessment orders were issued, holding him liable for tax payments. These orders were subsequently challenged before the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) in Nagpur, which dismissed the appeals.
Despite the ITAT’s ruling, Kochar asserted before the High Court that the authorities had failed to return the seized jewellery and documents, despite his multiple requests. Arguing that the continued retention of these items was unlawful, he sought judicial intervention.
After considering the submissions, the Court directed the issuance of notice to the respondents, requiring a response within three weeks. The proceedings will now continue with the Income Tax Department required to address the court’s queries.
This case highlights a recurring challenge in tax litigation, where taxpayers often face significant delays in the return of seized assets, even after receiving relief through appellate processes. The Bombay High Court’s decision is anticipated to tackle this issue and promote adherence to appellate orders.
Income Tax Department’s Seizure of Jewellery Leads to Court Battle
In a significant development, the income tax department raided the residence of Mr. Jain, discovering several pieces of gold jewellery valued at over Rs 90 lakh. The jewellery was seized as Mr. Jain was unable to provide a satisfactory explanation for its ownership. In an unexpected turn, the jewellery, which had been placed in the safe custody of a nationalized bank, was subsequently reported stolen.
As the income tax case concerning the jewellery seizure progressed, the theft occurred within the bank’s premises. Aggrieved by this loss, Mr. Jain filed a case against the Union Bank of India, the income tax department, and the branch manager at the Allahabad High Court, seeking compensation for his significant loss. He demanded Rs 94 lakh (Rs 94,64,844) in damages, with 9% interest per annum from July 30, 2025, until the amount is paid.
Verdict by Allahabad High Court
The Allahabad High Court addressed the matter in its judgment order (WRIT TAX No. – 4160 of 2025) dated September 25, 2025. The court acknowledged that the income tax authorities had caused undue delays in the process. It stated that the money should have been returned to Mr. Jain in 2023, following an agreed settlement of Rs 41 lakh (Rs 41,52,146). Despite this, Mr. Jain had not received any compensation regarding the lost jewellery, which was under the custody of the bank.
The court emphasized that Mr. Jain should not have to bear the burden of determining who should pay—the bank or the income tax authorities. Since the jewellery was seized by the income tax department, the loss of the jewellery would be treated as a loss incurred by the department. Hence, the payment for the jewellery should be made by the income tax authorities.
Court’s Directives
In light of these circumstances, the Allahabad High Court directed the income tax authorities to assess the valuation provided by Mr. Jain on July 30, 2025. Following the verification of this valuation, the court mandated that the payment be made within four weeks from the date of the order.
The judgment stipulated, “We make it clear that the petitioner (Jain) should be paid the amount within the aforesaid period; otherwise, the income tax authorities shall be liable to pay penal interest of 12% on the valuation of the jewellery from the date of seizure. The income tax authorities may recover the amount from the respondent bank in accordance with the law.” With these directives, the writ petition was disposed of, marking a significant step in the ongoing legal battle over the seized jewellery.
Vodafone Idea Challenges DoT’s AGR Dues in Supreme Court
New Delhi: Vodafone Idea (VI) has filed a fresh writ petition in the Supreme Court, seeking to challenge the Department of Telecommunications’ (DoT) revised calculation of its adjusted gross revenue (AGR) dues, as reported by CNBC-TV18.
In its plea, the company has requested the apex court to quash the DoT’s new tax demand of Rs 2,774 crore, arguing that this amount exceeds the scope of the Supreme Court’s earlier ruling on AGR liabilities. VI claims that certain amounts have been counted twice and require reconciliation to ensure accuracy.
Legal Update: Reinstatement and Departmental Proceedings of Government Servant
In a recent case, a petitioner, a government servant, faced significant legal challenges due to her incarceration in Case Crime No. 334/2018. This case involved serious charges under Sections 364 and 302 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), which led to her deemed suspension in accordance with Rule 4(3)A of the U.P. Government Servant (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 1999.
Background
The petitioner was suspended from her duties while criminal proceedings were ongoing. Following a prolonged duration of the legal process, she was reinstated in 2019. However, on September 19, 2022, the departmental inquiry into her case was put on hold by the authorities, as it was found that the departmental inquiries were overlapping with the criminal allegations.
Re-initiation of Inquiry: Passed on November 2, 2023
Rejection of Representation: Against the continuation of departmental proceedings, dated December 3, 2023
These orders were contested by the petitioner on the grounds that they failed to provide justifications for deviating from previous decisions.
Issue Raised
The key issue presented before the court was whether departmental proceedings could be re-initiated in cases where charges and evidence mirrored those in ongoing criminal proceedings, especially when the authority had not recorded reasons for reversing its earlier stance.
High Court’s Order
The Hon’ble High Court acknowledged that a prima facie case had been established and recognized the validity of the petitioner’s arguments. Consequently, the court granted the respondents a three-week period to submit a counter-affidavit. Furthermore, it scheduled the next court appearance for September 25, 2025, and issued a stay on the re-initiated departmental proceedings from November 2, 2023, until further notice.
This case highlights the complexities involved in the enforcement of disciplinary actions against government servants while they are concurrently facing criminal charges, reinforcing the need for transparent justifications in administrative decisions.
Supreme Court Directs Karnataka High Court to Determine Priority of Claims Between EPFO and Secured Creditors
New Delhi: In a significant ruling, the Supreme Court has directed the Karnataka High Court to resolve the priority of first charge among the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) and secured creditors, including Axis Bank and two other banks, concerning funds obtained from the sale of properties belonging to a defaulting establishment.
A bench comprising Justices Vikram Nath, Sanjay Karol, and Sandeep Mehta nullified a previous order from the High Court dated February 1, 2024, which had dismissed the plea by Edelweiss Asset Reconstruction Limited (EARC). Senior advocate Krishnan Venugopal, representing EARC, conceded that EPFO holds the first charge on the dues. However, EARC argued that while Axis Bank sold one property for approximately ₹12 crores, they had disposed of two properties for a total of ₹7 crores. EARC stated that the remaining amount owed to EPFO could be recovered from Axis Bank, as they have already remitted ₹75 lakhs, corresponding to the sale proceeds received.
The appellant further claimed that the outstanding dues owed to EPFO, which had been stayed by the High Court under Section 14(B) of the PF Act, amounting to around ₹1.3 crores, should come from the proportionate share of Axis Bank. If EPFO is successful in its claims before the High Court regarding the Section 14(B) demand, recovery should be pursued from Axis Bank, not EARC.
Representing EPFO, advocate Dushyant Parashar argued that the High Court’s dismissal of the appellant’s petition was justified, allowing EPFO to collect the remaining amount of ₹3,43,629 along with the approximate ₹1.3 crores quantified under Section 14(B) of the PF Act, contingent upon its success in the High Court.
Parashar emphasized that EARC did not include Axis Bank in the proceedings before the High Court. Hence, their claim regarding recovery from Axis Bank for the Section 14(B) quantified amount lacked foundation. Axis Bank’s senior advocate Gopal Jain contended that according to Section 35 of the SARFAESI Act, the bank’s secured dues take precedence over any sales taxes and other dues owed to governmental authorities, preventing recovery until their full dues are settled.
After hearing the arguments, the bench remarked, “In our considered opinion, it would be appropriate that the High Court first deals with the issues raised by Axis Bank concerning its first charge and priority over EPFO for recovering dues from the secured property as per Section 35 of the SARFAESI Act.
The Court instructed the High Court to examine the priority of claims between EPFO and the secured creditors, which include Axis Bank, the State Bank of India, and the State Bank of Travancore (now part of SBI), under Section 11(2) of the PF Act. The bench noted the necessity for the High Court to consider any relevant facts related to the charge created by EPFO over the properties that Axis Bank intends to auction.
While the Supreme Court acknowledged that pertinent material was presented, it refrained from addressing the merits of the first charge and priority issue in detail. All parties involved in the writ petition, post-remand, will be at liberty to present their contentions before the High Court,” the bench concluded.
This dispute arose following M/s Acropetal Technologies Pvt Ltd, which falls under the Employees Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, defaulting on provident fund payments since July 2013.
Taxpayer Wins Section 87A Rebate Case at ITAT Bengaluru
In a significant victory for taxpayers, the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) in Bengaluru has ruled in favor of T. Jakkarajua, allowing the claim for the Section 87A tax rebate even though it was submitted in a revised Income Tax Return (ITR) rather than the original one.
What You Need to Know About Filing ITR
To clarify, taxpayers must file an original ITR by the deadline (typically July 31). If any corrections are needed, a revised ITR can be filed to amend the original one, with a cut-off date of December 31 for the same financial year.
According to the ITAT order dated June 30, 2025, he filed his original return of income on June 22, 2024, which was processed on June 30, 2024.
On July 11, 2024, Jakkarajua revised his return, claiming a rebate under Section 87A amounting to Rs 21,350.
However, this claim was denied in the intimation that followed, prompting Jakkarajua to appeal to the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) [CIT(A)].
Arguments Presented by Jakkarajua’s Lawyers
In defense of Jakkarajua, his lawyers articulated several key points before the ITAT:
They indicated that Jakkarajua did not initially claim the tax rebate due to an “error and omission” in his original return, thus justifying the submission of a revised ITR.
They argued that regardless of whether one opts for the old or new tax regime, the rebate under Section 87A remains accessible.
Reference was made to Section 115BAC to affirm that relief under this section is valid in both tax regimes, indicating that the rejection of Jakkarajua’s revised ITR was unwarranted.
The lawyers also highlighted that Section 143(1)(a) does not mention adjustments based on the relief under Section 87A, thereby contending the CIT(A)’s order was invalid.
ITAT Bengaluru’s Ruling
The Vice President of ITAT Bangalore, Prashant Maharishi, delivered the order on June 30, 2025, stating:
“We have carefully considered the rival contentions. The facts show that the assessee (T. Jakkarraju) filed the original return claiming benefit under the old regime. However, a subsequent ITR, filed on July 11, 2024, claiming rebate under Section 87A was processed and denied.
The CIT(A) relied on the Supreme Court’s ruling in the case of CIT v Wipro Ltd., stating that a revised return cannot convert the original return into a loss return without errors or mistakes. However, in this case, there was indeed an error in the original return concerning the Section 87A claim, making the revised ITR submission valid.”
The ITAT cited a precedent set by the Bombay High Court in the case of Chamber of Tax Consultant v. DGIT (System) [2025] 473 ITR 85, concluding that Jakkarajua is entitled to the rebate under Section 87A of the Income Tax Act, 1961, thus allowing his appeal.
Expert Opinion
Chartered Accountant Prakash Hegde commented on the order, noting, “The ITAT has established that if a taxpayer fails to claim the rebate under Section 87A in the original ITR, it can still be claimed through a revised return. The tribunal’s rationale rests on the fact that the omission from the original return qualifies as an ‘error or omission,’ thereby meeting the criteria for filing a revised ITR.”
This landmark case highlights the importance of understanding tax provisions and ensures that taxpayers can rectify genuine mistakes in their filings, reinforcing the need for diligence in tax compliance.
In a notable ruling, the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) Bangalore has stated that a wife is not liable to pay income tax on the capital gains from the sale of non-agricultural land that was originally gifted to her by her husband. The case arose after she sold this land for ₹17.26 crore, with the ruling handed down on August 18, 2025.
Case Background
The land in question is located in North Bengaluru and was initially part of a family partition that her husband received on May 26, 1995. He gifted the land to his wife on May 4, 2009, executing a registered gift deed. In June 2011, the land was converted from agricultural to non-agricultural status to comply with restrictions under the Karnataka Land Reforms Act. Shortly thereafter, the wife sold the land on June 29, 2011, with her share of the sale proceeds amounting to 48.43%, or ₹8.36 crore.
When she filed her income tax return (ITR), she reported her share of the sale consideration while claiming that the cost of acquisition was only ₹1.5 crore—determined by the government’s guidance value—leading to a calculated taxable capital gain of ₹0. However, the income tax department contested her claim, citing an under-reporting of the property value. The assessing officer added ₹8.36 crore to her total income, thereby imposing tax liability.
Appeal and ITAT Ruling
The wife subsequently appealed to the ITAT Bangalore, arguing against the tax imposition. Upon reviewing the case, the tribunal analyzed Section 64(1)(iv) of the Income Tax Act, which addresses income from transferred assets between spouses. The tribunal stated:
“…we hold that income from transfer of the assets which is received by the assessee as a gift from her husband is chargeable to tax in the hands of her husband and not the assessee.”
The ITAT emphasized that when a gift is made without adequate consideration—characterized by love and affection—it does not shift tax liability onto the recipient spouse. The ruling further clarified that the income from capital gains resulting from such gifts is taxable solely in the hands of the transferor.
Significance of the Ruling
Experts have highlighted the significance of this ruling in emphasizing the mandatory nature of Section 64(1)(iv). It acts as a safeguard against tax avoidance through the transfer of assets between spouses. The tribunal illustrated that under this provision, the income arising from an asset transferred to a spouse without adequate consideration will continue to be taxed in the hands of the transferor.
The provisions of Section 64(1)(iv) deems for the purpose of taxation, that income from assets transferred by the transferor assessee for inadequate consideration to their spouse to be forming part of the income of the transferor assessee.
Expert Opinions
Amit Gupta, Partner at Saraf and Partners, noted that the ITAT ruling emphasizes both the anti-avoidance objectives of tax law and the need for clear understanding in structuring asset transfers.
Itesh Dodhi, Director at Nangia & Co LLP, remarked that the case serves as a critical reminder for taxpayers to seek professional advice when structuring transfers between spouses to prevent any unintended tax liabilities.
Conclusion
This ruling from the ITAT Bangalore reinforces the importance of understanding tax implications surrounding gifted assets. By clearly defining the tax liabilities incurred from such transfers, it not only clarifies the standing of current income tax provisions but also serves as a reference point for future cases involving transfers between spouses. Taxpayers must remain vigilant and consult professionals to navigate the complexities of tax law effectively.
An individual taxpayer faced trouble with the Income Tax Department after he calculated his income tax payable for long-term capital gain (LTCG) income of Rs 1.6 lakh as only Rs 33,296 while he sold his property for Rs 70 lakh, which he had purchased five years ago for Rs 36 lakh.
The income tax assessing officer (AO) argued that he was liable to pay tax on long-term capital gains (LTCG) income of Rs 17 lakh and the dispute resolution panel (DRP) agreed with him. However, the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) (Mumbai) was of a different opinion and ruled in favour of the taxpayer, taking into account the year in which he made substantial payments to acquire this property and the benefits of indexation.
This tax dispute arose because the taxpayer had entered into an agreement with the builder to purchase this property in FY 2007-08 but got possession of the same in FY 2010-11. Therefore, the income tax department used the argument that he should get indexation benefit from FY 2010-11 and accordingly, long term capital gain should be calculated at Rs 17 lakh. The taxpayer argued that indexation benefit for sale of this property should actually be calculated from FY 2007-08 and hence his LTCG should be only Rs 1.6 lakh.
The taxpayer’s lawyers said: “…more than 50% of the total cost i.e. 64.85% was paid up to FY 2007-08….The assessee (taxpayer) got the right to hold the property from the date of “agreement for sale” in January 2007 (FY 2007-08), hence the listing should start from that year.
ITAT Mumbai said that since he had paid more than 50% of the amount to the builder for acquiring this property in FY 2007-08, the precedent of similar decision of ITAT Mumbai (ITA 851/Mum/2025) would apply to this case, which shows that his capital gains computation (LTCG of Rs 1.6 lakh) may be accurate.
In the case discussed in this article, if the taxpayer had applied the indexation number of FY 2007-08, his long term capital gains (LTCG) would have been Rs 1,66,482. However, if he had used the tax department’s indexation number of FY 2010-11, his LTCG would have been Rs 17 lakh, a difference of Rs 15 lakh. This is why the taxpayer challenged the tax department’s order and eventually won in ITAT Mumbai.
Keep reading to know how this taxpayer won the case in ITAT Mumbai.
How did this matter start?
As per the ITAT Mumbai order dated June 23, 2025, the timeline of events is as follows:
Financial Year 2007-08: This taxpayer who was a non-resident individual (NRI), purchased a property in Mumbai and signed a sale agreement with the builder for Rs 36 lakh (36,77,020).
Financial Year 2010-11: This taxpayer got possession of the property.
April 26, 2022: The tax department reopened his file under section 147 and issued him a section 148 notice. The tax department alleged that there was a mistake in assessing income of Rs 74,18,194 during the year under consideration (FY 2014-15).
May 28, 2022: In response to this notice, he filed ITR for assessment year 2015-16, in which he declared his total income as Rs 1,54,700.
October 3, 2022: He was issued a notice under section 142(1) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 and questionnaire and asked to file full details of all immovable properties, copy of agreement of purchase/sale of property, details of payment made for purchase of property, details of payment received on sale of immovable property, details of payment of credit card bill, etc.
October 17, 2022: He did not respond to this notice. The tax department issued him a penalty notice under section 274 cum section 272(1)(b).
November 14, 2022: He submitted copy of account statement of Union Bank, copy of passport, computation of income along with acknowledgement of ITR filed in response to notice under section 148, bank account statement of Corporation Bank, reply letter, Index-II of property purchased in 2007.
August 26, 2023: A notice was issued to him under section 142(1), requesting him to submit the details of LTCG working along with details of property sold, details of property purchased, etc.
November 22, 2023: The reply of the taxpayer was not found to be tenable on the ground that the taxpayer had entered into the purchase agreement in January 2007, but possession of the property was given in December 2010. Therefore, the taxpayer was eligible to claim indexation only from FY 2010.
December 17, 2023: The tax department issued the order for this revised computation for his LTCG income.
June 23, 2025: Taxpayer wins the case in ITAT Mumbai.
The taxpayer filed an appeal against this order in the Dispute Resolution Panel (DRP) and lost the case. He then filed an appeal in the ITAT, Mumbai, where he won the case.
What did ITAT Mumbai say about this property sale transaction?
“…we have examined the documents including the agreement for sale dated November 16, 2007 and at page 4 in clause 2, the flat has been identified as flat number B-707, 7th floor and it is mentioned: “The purchaser hereby agrees to purchase and acquire Flat B-707, 7th floor measuring 65 sq.mt. built-up area of the said unit in the said building being constructed on the said property for a total consideration of Rs. 34,57,000.”
Clause 3 of the sale agreement contains the schedule of payments. As per the payment mentioned in the written arguments and reproduced by us in Para No. 9 of this order, a substantial amount has already been paid in the financial year 2007-08. It was submitted that up to the financial year 2007-08, 64.85% of the total cost had already been paid.
Therefore, respectfully following the decision of the jurisdictional Tribunal in Anand Swarup Mehta v. ITO ITA 851/Mum/2025 (supra), we are of the view that the assessee/appellant has the right to possess the property from the date of ‘agreement for sale’ dated 16th November, 2007 (FY 2007-08) and the arguments of the ld AR on behalf of the assessee are therefore cogent and solid wherein he has contended that indexation benefit should start from FY 2007-08.
Thus, the taxpayer has justified his claim to consider the date of acquisition of the asset for computing capital gains as the date of agreement for sale i.e. 16th November, 2007 and not from the date of possession letter dated 16th December, 2010 as proposed in the assessment order.
Judgement: “On the basis of the above discussion and the reasons mentioned therein, grounds Nos. 2, 3 and 4 are accepted in favour of the assessee. Accordingly, we direct the Assessing Officer to consider the date of acquisition for computing capital gains as the date of agreement for sale on 16th November, 2007 and compute the capital gains accordingly for the relevant assessment year 2015-16.
Sanjoli Maheshwari, executive director, Nangia & Co LLP, says: “If the tax department’s argument is accepted, indexation benefits will be considered from FY 2010-11 and accordingly, long-term capital gains will be calculated at Rs 17,04,264 instead of Rs 1,66,482.
Chartered Accountant (Dr) Suresh Surana shares a table that shows how capital gains have worked out after applying indexation from FY 2007-08, and also compares it with what the LTCG and tax would have been if the tax department’s position (indexation from FY 2010-11) had been accepted:
Sanjoli Maheshwari, Executive Director, Nangia & Co LLP, says: The said judgment follows the well-established principle enunciated by the Supreme Court and various courts that the relevant date for determining the holding period and listing is the date of the sale agreement and not the date of possession by which the allottee/purchaser acquires a legally enforceable right over the said property. The mere delivery of possession subsequently does not derogate from the fact that the allottee/purchaser had a right over the said property on the issuance of the allotment letter.
With regard to assessment year 2025-26, it is pertinent to note that the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 has made a significant change relating to taxation of LTCG on immovable property (land or building or both), effective from July 23, 2024, whereby it allows resident individuals to compute tax on LTCG arising from properties acquired before July 23, 2024, which is more beneficial to them.
However, the said exemption is not extended to non-resident individuals (NRIs). Thus, the above decision will not hold any significance in case of non-residents selling their properties effective from July 23, 2024, given that no indexation benefit will be available on properties acquired before July 23, 2024 and long-term capital gains will be taxed at 12.5%.
However, this will also be relevant for NRIs while filing tax returns for assessment year 2025-26 (i.e. wherein transfer of immovable properties takes place during the period April 1, 2024 and before July 23, 2024), as well as for ongoing assessments and litigations relating to earlier years, wherein the said judgment can be relied upon and indexation benefit can be considered from the date of allotment letter and not from the date of possession.
Chartered accountant Dinesh K. Jain, founding partner Dinesh Aarav & Associates, says: “The tribunal’s decision is both legally correct and equitable. It is in line with established judicial precedents such as Sanjiv Lal vs CIT and PCIT vs Vembu Vaidyanathan, which have held that legal rights in a capital asset are conferred not merely from the date of possession but from the date of a registered agreement with substantial payment.”
From a tax policy perspective, once the taxpayer parts with a significant consideration, his economic investment in the property effectively commences. Accordingly, it is only fair that the benefit of indexation – which is intended to neutralise the effect of inflation during the period of actual investment – be provided from that date. It would be unfair to deny such a benefit, as it would ignore the period during which the taxpayer’s money has been locked up in the property.”
Effect in assessment year 2025-26: “However, in the current regime, the practical effect is more limited. For non-resident taxpayers, a flat 12.5% long-term gains tax (LTCG) rate without indexation will apply to transfers made on or after 23 July 2024, making this decision of limited relevance, except for sale transactions before 23 July 2024. For resident taxpayers, both options will co-exist – 20% with indexation or 12.5% without indexation – making the tribunal’s reasoning more relevant to domestic cases where indexation calculations continue to apply in respect of assets acquired before 23 July 2024
Chartered Accountant (Dr) Suresh Surana says: “The Mumbai ITAT decision in the case of Braj Kishore Singh is a rational and progressive interpretation of the tax law, particularly with regard to the computation of LTCG on immovable property. The tribunal rightly emphasised on actual ownership determined from the date of allotment or agreement of sale rather than mere legal possession or registration. This approach reflects the economic reality of property transactions and provides greater tax certainty, especially in cases of long periods between payment and possession.”
Some of the major implications of this judgement are as follows:
Enhanced indexation benefit for property sellers – “Taxpayers selling property in FY 2025-26 and beyond can claim indexation from the date of understanding or allotment instead of possession or registration
Even with the introduction of the 12.5% LTCG tax rate without indexation benefit under the Finance (No. 2) Act 2024, this development remains significant. For properties acquired before 23 July 2024, taxpayers still have the option to be taxed at the existing 20% rate with indexation. In such cases, the ability to apply indexation from an earlier date may result in more favourable tax outcomes, making this decision a valuable opportunity for property sellers to optimise their capital gains tax liability.
Aligning tax benefits with investment realities “The recent decision is of particular significance for transactions involving under-construction properties, where project delays are a common occurrence. By aligning tax benefits with the actual economic timeline of property investment, the decision provides a more realistic and equitable framework for taxpayers.
Importance of Proper Documentation “The ITAT decision regarding facility-related expenditure underlines the importance of maintaining comprehensive documentation for all related payments. This ensures that taxpayers are able to take full advantage of the deductions allowable under capital gains provisions, thereby improving their tax position.”
New Delhi: Delhi High Court on Thursday noted that advocates are bo-und by the instructions of their clients and are under no legal obligation to ve-rify their truthfulness, as it is to be de-cided by the court hearing the matter.
Dismissing a complaint lodged by a man against three lawyers who ap-peared for his opponent in court, HC emphasised that the duty of the lawy-er is to submit the case as per instruc-tions, which was done in the present matter. “We may also record that an advocate is bound by the instructions given to him by his client,
and it does not form part of his duty to verify the truthfulness or veracity of such in-structions, especially for the reason that the assertions made by the parti-es before the court in the form of plea-dings or setting up a case are to be de-cided by the learned court concerned in the proceedings and not by the la-wyers representing the respective
parties,” a bench of Chief Justice DK Upadhyay and Justice Tushar Rao Gedela said. The court agreed with the conclusions of the Bar Council of Delhi (BCD) and a single-judge bench of HC that there was no misconduct by the advocates who represented the opposite party against the litigant, Chand Mehra.
On the basis of the contents of the complaint lodged by the appellant (Mehra) against the respondents, no case of professional misconduct is made out. Further, if the complaint made by the appellant is to be acted upon and proceeded with for taking action against the respondents, the same will result in undermining the duties which an advocate owes to his client,” the court pointed out.
Mehra moved HC against a 2023 BCD order that dismissed his compla-int on the grounds that he and the 3 la-wyers had no professional relations-hip as they represented the opposite party in a cheque-bounce matter.
The uncertainty regarding the eligibility of small taxpayers’ special rate income—particularly short-term capital gains tax—for the rebate under Section 87A in the new tax regime has resurfaced. The recent ruling by the ITAT-Ahmedabad (Income Tax Appellate Tribunal) has ignited further discussion, opening a pathway for such taxpayers to assert a rebate while filing their returns for the financial year 2024-25 (assessment year 2025-26).
Understanding the Context of the Finance Act
According to the Finance Act for FY 2025-26, the 87A rebate on incomes up to Rs 12 lakh (an increase from Rs 7 lakh) under the new tax regime is not applicable to special rate incomes, such as short-term capital gains from the sale of equity shares or equity-oriented mutual fund units. However, the case at hand revolves around the prior financial year.
The Case of Jayshreeben Jayantibhai Palsana
In this case, taxpayer Jayshreeben Jayantibhai Palsana declared a total income of Rs 4,27,635 for FY 2023-24 (AY 2024-25), which included short-term capital gains under Section 111A amounting to Rs 3,79,559, long-term capital gains of Rs 38,840 under Section 112A, and income from other sources of Rs 9,236. After revising her return before December 31, 2024, her total tax payable was calculated at Rs 13,320. Since her total income fell below Rs 7 lakh, she claimed a rebate of Rs 13,320 under Section 87A, which permits up to Rs 25,000 on incomes of up to Rs 7 lakh.
Despite this, the Income Department and the Commissioner of Income Tax – Appeals (CIT-A) denied her claim. Motived by these denials, Palsana approached the ITAT-Ahmedabad, which ultimately overruled the Bengaluru CPC and CIT(A) decisions, granting her favor.
Statutory Interpretation: The tribunal emphasized that the explanatory memorandum cannot supersede the clear language of the statute. Therefore, under the unamended provision applicable for AY 2024-25, a rebate under Section 87A should not be denied simply because tax stems from Section 111A.
Legislative Intent: Additionally, there was no stipulation within either Section 87A or Section 111A that should restrict the rebate based on short-term capital gains for financial years preceding FY 2025-26.
Implications for Taxpayers
Although this ruling specifically pertains to Palsana’s case in FY 2023-24 (AY 2024-25), it raises questions about whether other taxpayers with income below Rs 7 lakh (plus a standard deduction of Rs 75,000 for salaried individuals) can leverage this decision to claim Section 87A rebate on their short-term capital gains component for the financial year 2024-25.
Tax professionals have divergent perspectives on the matter. As SR Patnaik, Partner at Cyril Amarchand Mangaldas, pointed out, the Ahmedabad ITAT’s ruling clarifies that neither Section 87A nor Section 111A bars the rebate. The absence of explicit exclusion for short-term capital gains under Section 111A is significant and should favor the taxpayer.
Conversely, Abhishek Soni, Founder of TaxWin, cautions that this ruling is specific to the taxpayer involved. Anyone else seeking similar benefits would need to appeal, and assistance would only follow if the new ruling is in their favor.
Future Legal Landscape
The ruling from ITAT is encouraging for taxpayers but does not suggest a straightforward path ahead in claiming rebates on STCG for FY 2024-25 (AY 2025-26). Ankit Jain, Partner at Ved Jain and Associates, indicated that the disconnect between the legal interpretation by judicial authorities and the automated denials from the Central Processing Centre (CPC) raises the likelihood of disputes and subsequent appeals.
High volumes of cases may continue to arise, prompting taxpayers and the department to escalate their appeals to higher judicial forums, including High Courts and potentially the Supreme Court. This judicial decision indeed fortifies taxpayers’ legal grounds in disputing rebate denials.
Despite resistance from the income tax department, which Soni notes may not pursue appeals in cases involving small amounts, the ramifications of this ruling will likely resonate through various jurisdictions, allowing affected taxpayers a stronger standing to challenge adverse decisions.
In conclusion, while the ITAT-Ahmedabad ruling provides some clarity, it also underscores that ongoing disputes are probable until clearer administrative guidelines are established. Affected taxpayers are encouraged to explore their legal avenues while remaining informed of potential implications from this pivotal decision.
A same-sex couple has moved the Bombay High Court challenging the Income Tax Act’s differential treatment regarding the taxation of gifts between spouses. The plea, filed by the couple, seeks to declare the term ‘spouse’ as it appears in the explanation to the fifth proviso to Section 56(2)(x) of the Income Tax Act unconstitutional, as it excludes same-sex couples from the definition of ‘spouse’.
Under Section 56(2)(x) of the Income Tax Act, any money, property, or asset received without adequate consideration, valued at over Rs 50,000, is taxed as ‘income from other sources’. However, the fifth proviso to this section exempts such gifts when received from ‘relatives’, which includes ‘spouses’. Notably, the term ‘spouse’ is not separately defined within the Act, leading to ambiguities that affect the rights of same-sex couples.
A bench consisting of Justice B P Colabawalla and Justice Firdosh Pooniwalla heard the plea on August 14, stating that the challenge addresses the constitutional validity of a provision of law. The court has issued a notice to the Attorney General of India in response to this significant legal matter.
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HC Quashes Section 153C Notices for Years Unconnected to Seized Documents
The Taxpayer challenged notices issued under Section 153C of the Income Tax Act for assessment years (AYs) 2015-16 to 2020-21. These notices were based on documents seized during a search conducted on July 4, 2019, in connection with another case. The seized records allegedly revealed cash payments for agricultural land purchased in December 2013, partly in the name of the petitioner’s wife.
The Assessing Officer (AO), relying on a Satisfaction Note, concluded that the transactions indicated unaccounted cash amounting to Rs. 7.81 crore. On this basis, the AO initiated proceedings under Section 153C against the assessee. The assessee, aggrieved by this action, filed an appeal before the High Court.
Central Issue
The primary question was whether Section 153C notices, which pertained to assessment years 2015-16 to 2020-21, could be sustained in the absence of relevant seized documents tied to those specific years.
HC’s Ruling
The Hon’ble High Court quashed the Section 153C notices for AYs 2015-16 to 2020-21. It ruled that the seized documents were related solely to assessment year 2014-15 and had no nexus with the subsequent years. The Court emphasized that a notice under Section 153C can only be issued if the AO is satisfied that the seized records have a direct bearing on the determination of the total income of the assessee for the relevant years.
The Revenue’s argument that mere association of the seized documents to the assessee was sufficient was firmly rejected. The Court highlighted the statutory requirement that a connection must exist between the seized documents and taxable income for the assessment years in question.
Additionally, the Court reiterated that for documents to be seized under Section 153C, they must directly impact the assessee’s income for the relevant assessment years. It reaffirmed that no additional assessments could be made without incriminating material applicable to those years, citing precedents such as CIT v. Kabul Chawla and CIT v. Sinhgad Technical Education Society. Consequently, the notices were revoked, and the petitions were allowed.
To read the full judgment, you can download the PDF provided below.
The Supreme Court issued a notice on July 25 regarding the Union Government’s petition that contests the recent judgment from the Kerala High Court. This judgment found the provisions of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 (CGST Act), which permitted the imposition of GST on supplies made by clubs and associations to their members, to be unconstitutional. The Court has ordered that no recovery actions should be taken against the Indian Medical Association (IMA), which is the respondent in this case.
The bench, consisting of Justice PS Narasimha and Justice AS Chandurkar, heard the matter with Additional Solicitor General N Venkataraman representing the Union. Senior Advocate Arvind Datar, who represented the IMA, requested that there be no retroactive recovery, a request the Court accepted. The Kerala High Court’s ruling was in response to a writ appeal filed by the IMA regarding the GST charges levied on services provided by the Association to its members. The IMA argued based on the principle of mutuality, asserting that services rendered by clubs or associations to their members should not be taxable.
An amendment to the provisions of Section 2(17)(e) and Section 7(1)(aa) of both the CGST and the Kerala Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 (KGST Act) had previously removed this non-taxability. These amendments introduced provisions that rendered the services provided by a Club or Association to its members taxable for tax levy purposes. The amendments, enacted through the Finance Act, 2021, were made retroactive from July 1, 2017. The IMA challenged the constitutionality of these specific provisions.
The High Court bench, which included Justice Dr. Jayasankaran Nambiar and Justice S. Easwaran, ruled the amendments unconstitutional, stating they violated the definition of “supply” as outlined in Article 246A of the Constitution. Hence, the provisions in question from both the CGST and KGST Acts were declared unconstitutional and void, as they were found to be ultra vires to Articles 246A, 366 (12A), and 265 of the Constitution of India. Additionally, the bench noted that applying these provisions retroactively was unlawful, emphasizing that changing the basis of taxation retroactively, when taxpayers had not expected such levies, countered the principles of fairness and the rule of law.
GST Rule 142(1A) Under Judicial Scrutiny: Telangana HC’s Intervention Explained
In a major development that could impact thousands of GST-registered taxpayers, the Telangana High Court has admitted a writ petition challenging the recent amendment to Rule 142(1A) of the CGST Rules, 2017. This rule pertains to pre-show cause notice (SCN) intimation of tax liabilities, an essential procedural safeguard before formal proceedings under Section 74 of the CGST Act, 2017. The case—KH Facility Solutions India Pvt. Ltd. vs. Union of India—may reshape how tax authorities initiate proceedings and how businesses defend themselves against GST demands.
What Is Rule 142(1A) of the CGST Rules?
Rule 142(1A) mandates that before issuing a show cause notice under Section 74 (for fraud or suppression cases), the proper officer must communicate the “tax, interest, and penalty” due through a form called DRC-01A. It serves as a pre-SCN intimation—offering taxpayers a chance to voluntarily pay and avoid penalties.
What Changed Recently?
A 2023 amendment (via Notification No. 38/2023 – Central Tax, dated 04.08.2023) altered the discretionary nature of this intimation. Previously, the use of DRC-01A was optional. However, the amendment seemingly made it mandatory in all fraud-related GST cases, creating confusion and sparking legal challenges.
Telangana HC’s Stand: Due Process and Natural Justice
The High Court bench, comprising Acting Chief Justice Sujoy Paul and Justice Renuka Yara, admitted the plea challenging the legal sustainability of multiple actions taken by GST authorities:
The Delhi High Court has recently imposed a ₹1 lakh fine on restaurant associations that challenged the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) guidelines prohibiting mandatory service charges. In a significant ruling, the court stated that restaurants cannot levy service charges on food bills, indicating that such a practice violates the Consumer Protection Act.
Upholding the validity of the CCPA guidelines, the court reaffirmed that service charges cannot be added to bills. The CCPA had previously directed restaurants to avoid including service charges without consumer consent to promote transparency in billing practices.
The Federation of Hotels and Restaurant Associations of India (FHRAI) and the National Restaurant Association of India (NRAI) had filed two separate petitions contesting the guidelines issued by the CCPA on July 4, 2022. However, later that month, the Delhi High Court stayed the implementation of the guidelines. FHRAI’s counsel argued that the CCPA lacked the authority to impose such a ban without adhering to the principles of natural justice.
This ruling underscores the importance of consumer rights and promotes a fair dining experience, ensuring that customers are not obligated to pay additional charges without their explicit consent.
Supreme Court Declines PIL for FIR Against Delhi High Court Judge
The Supreme Court of India on Friday dismissed a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) aimed at registering a First Information Report (FIR) and launching an investigation into the reported discovery of cash at the official residence of Delhi High Court judge Yashwant Varma. The court cited an ongoing in-house inquiry as the reason for its decision.
According to the Supreme Court’s cause list for Friday, a bench comprising Justices Abhay S Oka and Ujjal Bhuyan heard the matter. The preceding Wednesday, a bench led by Chief Justice Sanjiv Khanna had denied an urgent hearing after lawyer Mathews J Nedumpara raised the issue. Nedumpara, along with three others, had filed the plea on Sunday, requesting a directive for the police to register an FIR concerning the alleged cash discovery. The petition also challenged a 1991 Supreme Court judgment in the K Veeraswami case, which established that no criminal proceedings could be initiated against a High Court or Supreme Court judge without prior approval from the Chief Justice of India.
Cash Discovery at Judge’s Residence
The alleged cash discovery followed a fire that broke out at Justice Varma’s Lutyens Delhi residence around 11:35 PM on March 14, prompting fire officers to respond to the scene.
On Tuesday, three members of a Supreme Court-appointed in-house committee visited Justice Varma’s residence to initiate an inquiry into the matter. Following the controversy, the Supreme Court Collegium recommended that Justice Varma be repatriated to his parent Allahabad High Court. Additionally, Justice Varma was de-rostered by the Delhi High Court at the directive of the Chief Justice of India.
On March 22, the Chief Justice of India established a three-member committee to conduct an in-house inquiry and decided to make the inquiry report—along with photos and videos of the alleged cash discovery—accessible on the Supreme Court’s website. In response to the allegations, Justice Varma has firmly denied any wrongdoing, asserting that no cash was ever placed in the storeroom by him or his family members.
Judgment Date Set for 17-Year-Old Alleged Cash Case
Alka Malik, Special Judge at the CBI Court in Chandigarh, is scheduled to pronounce the judgment on March 29 regarding the 17-year-old alleged cash delivery case at a judge’s residence. The case involves accusations surrounding a bag containing Rs 15 lakh that was reportedly delivered to the home of Justice Nirmaljit Kaur of the Punjab and Haryana High Court by error.
The final arguments regarding additional evidence presented by the prosecution concluded on Thursday, with the defense counsel offering their rebuttals. The prosecution had sought permission from the Punjab and Haryana High Court to summon and re-examine 22 witnesses, arguing that their testimonies were critical to the case. However, the high court permitted the re-examination of only six witnesses. Out of the initial list of 84 witnesses, the prosecution succeeded in examining only 69.
Public prosecutor Narendra Singh contended that the prosecution had proven its case beyond a shadow of a doubt. Conversely, Vishal Garg Narwana, counsel for Justice Nirmal Yadav, asserted that the CBI had unjustly implicated her in the case, highlighting that the CBI had previously filed a closure report regarding the allegations.
The investigation began when Chandigarh police registered an FIR on August 16, 2008, leading to a case that initially was handled by local authorities. It was only later, on August 26, 2008, that the matter was referred to the CBI by the then Chandigarh administrator. The upcoming verdict will mark a significant development in this lengthy and complex legal saga.
In a significant ruling that could impact the beverage industry, the Gauhati High Court has classified fizzy fruit juice as a “fruit-based drink,” subjecting it to a 12% Goods and Services Tax (GST) rate, rather than the 28% rate applicable to carbonated beverages. This decision brings relief to manufacturers and distributors of such products, clarifying a long-standing ambiguity in GST classification.
The ruling stemmed from a petition filed by [Petitioner’s Name/Company], challenging the tax authorities’ classification of their fizzy fruit juice as a carbonated beverage, which attracts the higher GST rate. The petitioners argued that their product, primarily composed of fruit juice and containing a small amount of added carbon dioxide for effervescence, should be classified as a “fruit-based drink.
The High Court, after examining the composition and characteristics of the product, agreed with the petitioner’s argument. The court observed that the primary ingredient and defining characteristic of the beverage was fruit juice, and the addition of carbon dioxide was merely to enhance its palatability and shelf life, not to transform it into a carbonated drink in the conventional sense.
The essential character of the product remains that of a fruit-based drink,” the court stated in its judgment. The addition of carbon dioxide, while imparting effervescence, does not alter the fundamental nature of the beverage.
Distinction Between Fruit-Based Drinks and Carbonated Beverages: The court emphasized the distinction between beverages primarily composed of fruit juice with added carbon dioxide and those primarily composed of carbonated water with added flavors.
Primary Ingredient as Determining Factor: The court considered the primary ingredient of the beverage, which was fruit juice, as the determining factor for its classification.
Purpose of Added Carbon Dioxide: The court acknowledged that the purpose of adding carbon dioxide was to enhance the product’s quality, not to fundamentally alter its nature.
Impact on Industry: This ruling is expected to bring clarity to the taxation of fizzy fruit juices and provide relief to manufacturers who were facing the higher GST rate.
Following a ruling by the Gauhati High Court, carbonated juice drinks are to be taxed at a lower 12% GST rate instead of the previous 28%. This decision, favoring X’SS Beverage, hinges on fruit juice being the predominant ingredient, and is set to make these beverages more affordable for consumers.
This judgment is likely to have a ripple effect on the beverage industry, particularly manufacturers of fruit-based drinks with added carbonation. It sets a precedent for the classification of such products under the GST regime, potentially leading to a revision of existing classifications and a reduction in the tax burden for affected businesses.
Disclaimer: Every effort has been made to avoid errors or omissions in this material. In spite of this, errors may creep in. Any mistake, error or discrepancy noted may be brought to our notice which shall be taken care of in the next edition. In no event the author shall be liable for any direct, indirect, special or incidental damage resulting from or arising out of or in connection with the use of this information.
Shah Rukh Khan Wins Tax Dispute with Income Tax Authorities
Actor Shah Rukh Khan has achieved a significant victory in his dispute with the Income Tax authorities, as the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) has delivered a verdict in his favor. The dispute centered on the tax obligations related to his 2011 film, RA One.
The Income Tax department had challenged Mr. Khan’s declared income of Rs 83.42 crore for the financial year 2011-2012. They rejected his claims for a foreign tax credit for taxes paid in the UK, leading to a recalculated tax amount of Rs 84.17 crore, determined more than four years after the original filing.
The ITAT ruled that the Income Tax department’s reassessment of the case was not legally justified. The court emphasized that the assessing officer had not provided any “fresh tangible material” that warranted a reassessment beyond the four-year statutory period. Furthermore, the ITAT pointed out that the matter had already been examined during the initial scrutiny, making the re-assessment proceedings legally questionable on several grounds.
In the agreement between Mr. Khan and Red Chillies Entertainment, it was stipulated that 70 percent of the film’s shooting would take place in the UK, which implied that an equal percentage of his income would be subject to UK taxes. However, the IT Department argued that this arrangement resulted in a revenue loss for India, leading to their refusal of Mr. Khan’s claim for a foreign tax credit.
This ruling marks a crucial moment for Shah Rukh Khan as he navigates the complex landscape of international taxation related to his film career.
In a significant ruling that could impact a large segment of the workforce, the Chhattisgarh High Court has quashed a 1998 order that extended Provident Fund (PF) benefits to contractual workers. The decision effectively reverses decades-old entitlements, leaving many contractual employees without the security of mandatory PF contributions.
The implications of this ruling are far-reaching. Contractual workers, who often constitute a substantial portion of the workforce in various sectors, will now be excluded from mandatory PF coverage. This could lead to concerns about their long-term financial security, particularly in the absence of alternative retirement benefits.
Context:
The core issue revolves around the application of Provident Fund (PF) benefits to contractual workers, a subject of ongoing legal interpretation.
The Chhattisgarh High Court has recently made a ruling that overturned a 1998 order.
This ruling specifically pertained to a case involving Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) and the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO).
The 1998 order that was quashed, was an order issued by the assistant provident fund commissioner (APFC), Raipur, which directed HPCL to extend provident fund benefits to loading/unloading labourers engaged by its contractors.
Key Points:
The High Court’s decision was based on the interpretation of the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.
The court emphasized the distinction between regular employees and contractual workers, and the importance of establishing a clear employer-employee relationship.
The ruling highlights the legal complexities surrounding PF contributions for contract labor.
The court also made reference to supreme court rulings, that helped to define the position that the APFC had made an error of law.
Implications:
This decision could have significant implications for contractual workers, potentially affecting their access to PF benefits.
It also raises questions about the definition of “employee” under labor laws.
The ruling clarifies the legal position regarding PF benefits for contractual employees and underscores the distinction between regular and contractual employment.
Disclaimer: Every effort has been made to avoid errors or omissions in this material. In spite of this, errors may creep in. Any mistake, error or discrepancy noted may be brought to our notice which shall be taken care of in the next edition. In no event the author shall be liable for any direct, indirect, special or incidental damage resulting from or arising out of or in connection with the use of this information.
Allahabad High Court Decision on Section 148A(b) of the Income Tax Act
In a significant ruling, the Allahabad High Court addressed the maintainability of proceedings under Section 148A(b) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 (IT Act), initiated prior to September 1, 2024. The main question was whether these proceedings would remain valid following the enforcement of the Finance Act No. 02 of 2024, which came into effect on September 1, 2024. This matter was brought before a division bench comprising Justices Rajan Roy and Brij Raj Singh.
Background
The case stemmed from the Income Tax Department’s attempt to initiate reassessment proceedings against the petitioner based on information about ‘income having escaped assessment,’ which was derived from an audit objection. Initially, the department issued a notice under Section 148A(b) of the IT Act, followed by an order under Section 148A(d), and subsequently a reassessment notice under Section 148. The High Court quashed these notices, determining that they had not adhered to the principles of natural justice.
Following the quashing of the earlier orders, the department reissued a notice under Section 148A(b) and again proceeded with an order under Section 148A(d). However, this occurred just before the Finance Act No. 02 of 2024 came into effect, which repealed Sections 148A and 148 of the IT Act.
The petitioner challenged the proceedings in the High Court, seeking to quash the reissued orders and notices. The petitioner argued that only cases where a notice under Section 148 had been issued or an order under clause (d) of sub-section 148A had been made prior to September 1, 2024, would be governed under the previous provisions of Sections 147 to 151. They contended that if these conditions were not met, the previous provisions would be inoperative, and any actions could only be based on the new regulations post-September 1, 2024.
Furthermore, the petitioner pointed out that a specific saving clause contained in the Finance Act (No. 2) of 2024 should apply, suggesting that Section 6 of the General Clauses Act, 1897 would not govern this situation due to the distinct intention outlined in the saving clause. Since the reassessment order and notice were issued on September 2, 2024, after the new provisions took effect, the petitioner asserted that the amended regulations should apply, thus precluding any actions under Section 148A(d) from being valid.
On December 19, 2024, the High Court issued an interim order that stayed the impugned proceedings, requesting the Revenue to clarify how the proceedings initiated under Section 148A(b) prior to September 1, 2024, would be saved under the new Finance Act.
The Delhi High Court has recently issued a notice regarding a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) that questions the recruitment process for Young Professionals by the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO). The petition asserts that the EPFO assigns a special weightage of 15 to 30 marks out of a total of 100 for candidates who have obtained their law degrees from one of the top 40 National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) Institutes.
The argument put forth is that this criterion discriminates against institutions affiliated with the Central and various State Governments that do not rank within the top 40 NIRF Institutes. Furthermore, it is argued that such practices violate Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India.
A Bench consisting of Justice Devendra Kumar Upadhyay and Justice Tushar Rao Gedela has directed the concerned Ministry of the Central Government to respond, with the hearing scheduled for April 23. The petition emphasizes the importance of evaluation and selection criteria, asserting that the weightage assigned to marks is crucial. It contends that this particular criterion not only infringes upon the rights of institutions functioning under the aegis of the Central Government and other State Governments that do not meet the top 40 NIRF benchmark but also constitutes a clear contravention of Fundamental Rights articulated in Articles 14 and 16 of Part III of the Constitution of India.
A three-judge Supreme Court bench ruled that individuals accused under GST and customs laws would be entitled to the same legal protections as those accused under criminal law.
In a significant ruling that strengthens the rights of taxpayers, the Supreme Court of India has extended the safeguards of criminal law to proceedings under the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Act and the Customs Act. This decision ensures that individuals facing investigations or prosecutions under these tax laws will be afforded the same protections as those accused of traditional criminal offenses.
The ruling came while hearing a batch of 279 petitions challenging the penal provisions of these laws. The petitioners argued that these provisions were inconsistent with the Constitution and CrPC/BNSS, asserting that tax authorities had been given excessive powers that could lead to misuse.
Key Ruling:
The Supreme Court’s decision effectively brings the procedural safeguards outlined in the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) into the realm of GST and Customs Act proceedings. This means that individuals facing accusations under these tax laws will now be entitled to:
Protection against self-incrimination: The right to remain silent and not be compelled to provide evidence against themselves.
The right to legal representation: Access to legal counsel during investigations and prosecutions.
Protection against arbitrary arrest and detention: Safeguards against unlawful or unjustified arrests.
The right to a fair trial: Ensuring that proceedings are conducted in a just and impartial manner.
This ruling marks a crucial step in ensuring fairness and transparency in tax enforcement. Previously, there were concerns that the broad powers granted to tax authorities under the GST and Customs Acts could lead to potential abuses and violations of individual rights.
By extending criminal law safeguards, the Supreme Court has:
Balanced the need for effective tax enforcement with the protection of individual liberties.
Reinforced the principle that tax proceedings, especially those with potential criminal implications, must adhere to the rule of law.
Provided greater legal certainty and clarity for taxpayers facing investigations under these laws.
The Supreme Court’s ruling is expected to lead to further clarifications and guidelines on the application of criminal law safeguards in GST and Customs Act proceedings. Taxpayers are advised to stay informed about these developments and seek legal counsel if they face any investigations or prosecutions under these laws.
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The Supreme Court has recently ruled that a landowner cannot be deprived of the use of their land indefinitely. This decision came from a bench of Justices J B Pardiwala and R Mahadevan, who set aside an order from the Bombay High Court. The Court emphasized that “the landowner cannot be deprived of the use of the land for years together.”
The bench pointed out that once a restriction has been placed on a landowner regarding the use of their land, it should not remain open-ended for an indefinite period. They referenced Section 127 of the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966, stating that it was unreasonable to keep a plot reserved in a development plan for 33 years without utilizing it.
In their observations, the Court noted that not only had the authorities failed to allow the original owners to use the land, but they also prevented subsequent purchasers from utilizing it. “The statute has provided a period of ten years to acquire the land under Section 126 of the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966,” the bench explained. They added that an additional year is granted to landowners to serve a notice for acquisition prior to the amendment by Maharashtra Act 42 of 2015. Such timeline is sacrosanct and has to be adhered to by the state or by the authorities under the state,” they affirmed.
This ruling came as the top court heard a case involving the owners of a vacant plot who had submitted a Land Development Plan for the development of 2.47 hectares. The original plan was sanctioned, but the remaining area was designated as reserved for a private school in a revised development plan under the Act in 1993. However, from 1993 until 2006, no action was taken by the Maharashtra authorities to acquire the property for the proposed school, leading to significant frustration among the landowners.
The Supreme Court’s decision underscores the necessity for timely action by authorities in land acquisition matters and strengthens landowners’ rights against indefinite restrictions.
Delhi High Court Judgement on Capital Gains Tax Exemption under Section 54F
Introduction
The case revolves around a widow who reinvested the money obtained from the sale of an inherited plot of land in Jaipur into two residential flats in Noida, Uttar Pradesh. She sought capital gains tax exemption under Section 54F of the Income Tax Act but faced challenges at various levels of the tax adjudication system, ultimately approaching the Delhi High Court.
Background
Taxpayer: A widow who inherited a plot in Jaipur after her husband’s demise in 2005.
Sale of Land: Sold the plot for Rs 77,75,000 in FY 2012-13 (AY 2013-14).
Purchases: She invested in two flats costing Rs 44,13,775 and Rs 42,39,275, respectively.
Claim for Exemption: Filed her income tax return on July 31, 2013, claiming capital gains tax exemption under Section 54F.
Assessing Officer’s Denial
The assessing officer (AO) denied the claim, arguing that since the taxpayer purchased two residential properties rather than one, she could not benefit from Section 54F. The AO’s reasoning was based on:
The interpretation of “a residential house” in the context of the amendment made in Finance Act 2014, which clarified the exemption was intended for “one residential house.
Findings from an inspector’s report that identified the two flats were located on different floors and could not be structurally combined.
Tribunal and High Court Appeal
Following the AO’s decision, the taxpayer appealed to the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT), where she lost. She then presented her case to the CIT (Appeals), which partially considered her appeal before finally approaching the Delhi High Court.
Key Questions Addressed by the Court
Does “a residential house” under Section 54F mean one house or also allow for two houses?
What constitutes the term “new asset” in the context of a residential house property within the Income Tax Legislature?
Court’s Findings
The Delhi High Court arrived at several significant conclusions:
The two flats were considered distinct and separate units, disqualifying them as a single residential property because they were not adjacent.
The interpretation of the word “a” varies with context, supporting the AO’s stance on the necessity of a singular residential house for exemption.
The amendment in the Finance Act of 2014 aimed to eliminate any ambiguity, reinforcing that “a residential house” clearly refers to one house only.
Precedent Consideration
The court noted the Gita Duggal 2013 case, where exemptions were granted for two flats, but found it inapplicable here. The distinctions were critical:
In Gita Duggal, the property was reconstructive, allowing for a cohesive unit.
Here, the taxpayer’s flats were distinct purchases with no evidence or indication that they were intended to be combined into one residential unit.
Judgement
The Delhi High Court ruled in favor of the Revenue Department, stating:
The taxpayer is entitled to capital gains tax exemption for only one of the flats purchased, not both. The purchase of two separate, non-adjacent flats does not fulfill the criteria for an exemption under Section 54F.
Capital Gains Tax Implications
The implication of this judgement suggests that:
If the taxpayer claims the exemption on the higher priced flat of Rs 44,13,775, her total taxable capital gains would be Rs 33,08,182 after accounting for the exemption claimed.
Conclusion
The decision emphasizes the legislative intent behind Section 54F, reinforcing a clear interpretation that capital gains tax exemptions apply only when the criteria of a single residential house is met, and clarifies the implications surrounding adjacent ownership.
This ruling serves as a crucial reference for potential homebuyers considering leveraging Section 54F in similar scenarios regarding capital gains tax exemptions for their real estate purchases.
The Supreme Court has given a big relief to the traders on the arrests made under the GST Act. According to the court, in the arrests made under the Customs and GST Act, the individuals will get all the protection available under the CRPC. The court also made it clear that the Customs officer cannot be considered a police officer.
Relief announced on arrests under GST Act – Supreme Court gave relief to all traders. First let us tell you what is this matter? Actually, arrests under GST Act and Customs Act were challenged. About 279 petitions were filed in the court.
On this matter, the Supreme Court has said that all the protection available under CrPC will be available. Anticipatory bail can be obtained to avoid arrest.
The Supreme Court was hearing 279 petitions challenging arrest, other punitive powers under GST, Customs Act.
What is GST Act- GST (Goods and Services Tax) Act is a law implemented to simplify and integrate the indirect tax system in India.
It was implemented across the country on 1 July 2017. It is a “One Nation, One Tax” system, which means that a uniform tax will be applicable on goods and services across the country.
Can anyone ever be arrested under the GST Act? No, no person can ever be arrested under the GST (Goods and Services Tax) Act, 2017.
There are certain special circumstances and legal procedures for arrest, without completing which a person cannot be arrested.
The GST Act provides for arrest only in cases of serious tax evasion, fake billing or causing loss to the government.
No one can be arrested without investigation, without notice or arbitrarily. If a person is innocent and is cooperating in the investigation, then the chances of arresting him are very less.
Supreme Court to Review Government’s Authority on Time Extensions for GST Adjudication
The Supreme Court is preparing to examine whether the government has the authority to extend the time limit for adjudicating show cause notices (SCNs) under Section 73 of the GST Act by issuing notifications under Section 168A. This particular provision allows for time limit extensions in circumstances deemed as force majeure, which are unforeseen extraordinary events.
Background of the Case
A group of petitions was initially filed with the Telangana High Court, challenging the validity of notifications Nos. 13/2022, 9/2023, and 56/2023, which were issued under Section 168A of the GST Act. The petitioners raised several significant contentions:
The SCN was issued on May 31, 2024, but the adjudication order was passed on August 29, 2024, which exceeded the time limit established under Section 73 of the Act.
There was no force majeure situation to rationalize the extension of the time limit.
Extensions related to COVID-19 were only valid until February 28, 2022, thus offering no justification for any subsequent extensions.
The notifications were issued without obtaining the necessary recommendation from the GST Council, violating Section 168A.
High Court’s Ruling
The Telangana High Court reviewed previous judgments from other High Courts, including:
Allahabad High Court (Graziano Transmissions case): This court concluded that the Supreme Court’s general relaxation of limitation periods does not apply to GST proceedings.
Gauhati High Court (M/s. Barkataki Print case): It stated that obtaining a recommendation from the GST Council is essential for any extension under Section 168A.
The High Court noted that Notification No. 56/2023 was issued without prior recommendation from the GST Council, stressing that mere ratification after issuance does not validate it. The court emphasized the importance of the Council’s recommendation as a representation of cooperative federalism, ensuring engagement from all states.
However, the High Court also acknowledged the Supreme Court’s earlier decision to exclude the period from March 15, 2020, to February 28, 2022, when calculating limitation periods because of COVID-19. This exclusion rendered the validity of the recent notifications less significant in the context of this case.
The outcome of this case is poised to establish whether the government can legitimately extend the time limit for adjudicating SCNs under GST through notifications issued under Section 168A.