AIRF General Secretary Shiva Gopal Mishra has requested the 8th CPC to allot at least two additional days for discussions on various Railway employee categories, including Ministerial, Accounts, Metro Railway, RDSO and other staff.
Big Update for ED has arrested Saurabh Chandrakar, co-owner of the Mahadev Online Book illegal betting syndicate
ED has arrested Saurabh Chandrakar, co-owner and promoter of the Mahadev Online Book illegal betting syndicate under Section 19 of PMLA, 2002 on 13.11.2026, with the permission of the Special Court (PMLA), Raipur. The Court has remanded him to ED custody for seven days till 19th November for further investigation. He is the first promoter of the syndicate to be brought back to India.


Govt Extends Stand-Up India Scheme for 5 Years Till March 2031
Govt Extends Stand-Up India Scheme for 5 Years Till March 2031, Approves Rs 4,111 Crore Credit Guarantee Corpus
The Union Cabinet on Wednesday approved the continuation of the Stand-Up India scheme for five years till March 31, 2031. The Cabinet, spearheaded by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, also approved a credit guarantee corpus of Rs 4,111 crore to support lending under the scheme.
The continuation of the scheme is essentially aimed at improving access to institutional credit for entrepreneurs from underserved communities and supporting the creation of new enterprises.
Target and Progress So Far
The Stand-Up India scheme has set a target of extending financial assistance to at least 250,000 additional entrepreneurs.
Launched in April 2016, the scheme has so far facilitated loans to more than 275,000 women, Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) entrepreneurs so far, according to the government.
The scheme aims to support entrepreneurs from women, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes categories.
Loan Features
Under the scheme, eligible women and SC/ST entrepreneurs can avail loans ranging from above Rs 10 lakh to Rs 1 crore for setting up greenfield enterprises.
The loans can be structured as composite loans, covering both working capital and term loan requirements, or as term loans, and can cover up to 85 per cent of the project cost.
The scheme covers enterprises across manufacturing, services, trading and agriculture-allied activities.
Under the scheme, the credit guarantee coverage is set at 85 per cent of the loan amount, with a standard guarantee fee of 0.50 per cent.
Gold Rules Change According to Income Tax guidelines
According to Income Tax guidelines (as of 2016), there are specific limits on the amount of gold one can possess without facing scrutiny. Married women are permitted to hold up to 500 grams of gold, unmarried women up to 250 grams, and men up to 100 grams. If an individual possesses gold beyond these limits, they may be required to provide an explanation or proof of its source. This is particularly relevant in cases involving “disproportionate assets.” While you are not required to produce receipts for ancestral gold or gold received as a wedding gift, it is advisable to maintain records or documentation for the gold you possess. If questioned, you must be prepared to provide details regarding the gold in your possession.
Red sanders smuggling syndicate at Chennai Port; seizes around 13,000 kg red sanders worth Rs. 7.72 crore; three arrested
Acting on specific intelligence regarding an attempt by a Chennai-based syndicate to smuggle Red Sanders logs to Malaysia, officers of the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI), intercepted an export container at Chennai Port during 9–11 November 2026, before its loading onto the vessel.
The container, declared to contain “Paper Laminate Rolls”, was subjected to detailed examination on 9–10 November 2026. Examination revealed 12.87 metric tonnes of high-grade Red Sanders logs, valued at approximately Rs. 7.72 crore, concealed alongside a small quantity of the declared cargo and gravel stones. The Red Sanders and cover cargo were seized under the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962.
Preliminary investigation revealed that the syndicate had exploited the self-sealing facility available to a manufacturer-exporter. The syndicate arranged an export consignment through the exporter, diverted the container to a private godown and replaced the declared paper laminate rolls with Red Sanders logs before dispatching it for export.
A subsequent search of the godown led to the recovery of the original declared cargo, an industrial weighing scale and traces of Red Sanders, providing further evidence of the modus operandi.
Three key members of the syndicate involved in the smuggling operation have been arrested under the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962.
Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus) is a protected species listed under Appendix II of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) and Schedule IV of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Its export from India is prohibited under the Foreign Trade Policy.
The operation highlights the misuse of legitimate export channels and trade facilitation measures for organised wildlife trafficking. DRI remains committed to dismantling such smuggling networks and protecting India’s rich biodiversity through intelligence-led enforcement.
NPO Mergers: CBDT Prescribes New Tax and Reporting Requirements
CBDT has introduced specific conditions governing mergers between registered non-profit organisations (NPOs) through the Income Tax (Eighth Amendment) Rules 2026. Notified date 30 October 2026, the amendment inserts Rule 189A into India’s new income tax rules and introduces Form No. 112A for reporting such mergers to the Income Tax Department.
This new framework is applicable to mergers between registered NPOs having the same or similar objects. It prescribes conditions concerning the following:
- Registration eligibility
- Outstanding tax liabilities
- Transfer of assets and obligations
- Related-party benefits
- Continuity of tax assessments and other proceedings
Under the amended rules, the surviving organisation assumes the relevant tax and compliance obligations of the merging organisation. Both entities must also have their books of accounts audited as of the merger date.
Eligibility conditions for mergers between registered NPOs
Under the new Income Tax Rules 2026, Rule 189A permits mergers between registered NPOs that have the same or similar objects, subject to prescribed conditions. However, the latest amendment restricts mergers based on the registration status of the organisations.
A registered NPO under Section 332 of the Income Tax Act 2025 cannot merge with a provisionally registered NPO under the same section, and vice versa. Accordingly, both organisations must hold compatible registration statuses to qualify for a merger under the amended provisions.
Tax and compliance conditions for NPO mergers
Rule 189A introduces several requirements governing the tax treatment, financial consolidation and continuing compliance obligations of merging NPOs.
Settlement of outstanding tax demands
The merging NPO must not have outstanding tax, interest, penalties, fines or other amounts payable under an order issued pursuant to the Income Tax Act 2025 unless the demand remains under appeal before an appellate authority.
If an appeal against an outstanding demand remains pending, the surviving NPO must discharge the liability once the appeal attains finality.
This requirement ensures that a merger does not extinguish existing tax liabilities. Organisations should review outstanding demands, assessment orders and pending appeals as part of their pre-merger tax due diligence.
Five-year restriction on changes to organisational objects
The surviving NPO cannot amend its objects for five years from the end of the financial year in which the merger takes place.
For example, if the merger takes place during FY 2026-27, the five-year restriction begins on 31 March 2027.
Organisations should therefore assess whether the surviving NPO’s existing charitable objects align with their proposed activities and long-term institutional objectives before completing the merger.
Transfer of assets, liabilities and tax obligations
From the effective date of the merger, all assets and liabilities of the merging NPO must become those of the surviving NPO. The surviving organisation must also assume the merging entity’s applicable statutory and tax obligations, including the following:
- Application of income: Fulfil the income-application requirements applicable to the merging organisation under Section 341.
- Application of accumulated income: Continue meeting the requirements governing accumulated income under Section 342.
- Tax on specified income: Assume liability for tax under Section 334 on the merging organisation’s specified income.
- Compliance with statutory conditions: Ensure that the merger does not result in a violation of the conditions prescribed under Section 340.
- Investment of funds: Maintain investments in accordance with the permitted modes under Section 350.
- Additional Income Tax: Discharge any additional income tax liability arising under Section 352.
Before completing the transaction, organisations should examine the merging NPO’s financial position, accumulated income, investment portfolio and outstanding statutory obligations to identify liabilities that will transfer to the surviving entity.
Restrictions on benefits to related persons
NPO merger must not provide any direct or indirect benefit to a related person of either organisation, as referred to under Section 337(1) of the Income Tax Act 2025.
To protect charitable assets against private benefit, both organisations should examine the proposed merger structure, asset transfers and related-party transactions and identify arrangements that could result in impermissible benefits.
Continuity of tax assessments and other proceedings
Rule 189A of the Income Tax Rules 2026 ensures that income tax proceedings initiated against the merging NPO remain in force after the transaction.
Any assessment, reassessment or other proceeding already completed or initiated against the merging organisation will be deemed to have been completed or initiated against the surviving organisation.
For proceedings not covered by this provision, the tax authorities must undertake assessments, reassessments and other proceedings against the surviving NPO in the same manner and to the same extent as they would have against the merging organisation. This applies to the tax year in which the merger takes place, up to the merger date, and to preceding tax years.
Consequently, the merger does not eliminate the merging NPO’s historical tax exposure or discontinue ongoing proceedings.
Mandatory audit of books of accounts
Rule 189A requires both the merging and surviving NPOs to have their books of accounts audited as on the merger date. An accountant, as defined under Section 515(3)(b) of the Income Tax Act 2025 must conduct the audit.
Form No. 112A also requires audited books of accounts for both organisations for the financial year immediately preceding the tax year in which the merger takes place.
Form No. 112A: Reporting requirement for NPO mergers in India
The CBDT has introduced Form No. 112A in Appendix III of the Income Tax Rules 2026 to establish a formal reporting mechanism for mergers between registered NPOs.
The surviving organisation must notify its jurisdictional Principal Commissioner or Commissioner by furnishing Form No. 112A within one month from the end of the month in which the NPO merger takes effect.
For example, if the merger takes effect on 15 November 2026, the surviving NPO must submit the form by 31 December 2026.
Form No. 112A: Reporting requirement for NPO mergers in India
The CBDT has introduced Form No. 112A in Appendix III of the Income Tax Rules 2026 to establish a formal reporting mechanism for mergers between registered NPOs.
The surviving organisation must notify its jurisdictional Principal Commissioner or Commissioner by furnishing Form No. 112A within one month from the end of the month in which the NPO merger takes effect.
For example, if the merger takes effect on 15 November 2026, the surviving NPO must submit the form by 31 December 2026.
Information required in Form No. 112A
Form No. 112A contains two sections covering the details of the merging and surviving organisations:
- Part A – Merging NPO: Full name, address, PAN, email address, contact number and merger date.
- Part B – Surviving NPO: Full name, address, PAN, email address, contact number and other supporting details.
The surviving organisation must declare that its trustees, governing body or management approved the merger through a resolution. It should also include undertakings covering the continuation of income-application requirements, treatment of accumulated income, tax on specified income, permitted investments and additional income tax liabilities.
Undertakings and additional compliance requirements
Form No. 112A also requires the surviving NPO to provide specific undertakings concerning the following matters:
- Depreciation: The surviving NPO cannot claim depreciation on an asset if the merging NPO has already claimed its acquisition cost as an application of income.
- Contributions: Contributions made by any person to the merging NPO must be included when calculating the surviving NPO’s total contributions.
The surviving organisation must submit the following supporting documents with the form:
| Supporting Documents Required Under Form No. 112A for NPO Mergers in India | |
| Annexure | Supporting document |
| A-1 | Copies of the trust deeds of both NPOs |
| A-2 | Copies of the registration certificates granted to both NPOs |
| A-3 | Copy of the resolution passed by the trustees, governing body or management approving the merger |
| A-4 | Audited books of accounts of both NPOs as on the merger date and for the financial year immediately preceding the tax year in which the merger takes place |
| A-5 | Reasons for undertaking the merger |
Effective date and applicability of the amended rules
The latest amendment took effect on 30 October 2026 upon their publication in the Official Gazette. It establishes the regulatory framework for NPO mergers by inserting Rule 189A into the Income Tax Rules 2026 and introducing Form No. 112A in Appendix III.
The notification, however, does not expressly specify whether the amended provisions apply retrospectively or prescribe a separate transitional mechanism for mergers completed before 30 October.
Compliance considerations for NPOs planning a merger in India
The amended framework requires NPOs to assess the tax, financial and regulatory implications of consolidation before completing a merger. Organisations should prioritise the following steps:
- Verify registration eligibility: Confirm that both organisations have compatible registration statuses and satisfy the requirement of having the same or similar objects.
- Conduct tax due diligence: Review outstanding tax demands, pending appeals, assessments, reassessments and other proceedings involving the merging organisation.
- Review accumulated income and statutory obligations: Identify unfulfilled income-application requirements, accumulated income commitments, specified income and potential additional tax liabilities.
- Assess assets, liabilities and investments: Prepare a comprehensive inventory to facilitate the transfer of assets and liabilities and verify compliance with prescribed investment requirements.
- Evaluate related-party transactions: Examine the merger structure and proposed asset transfers to prevent direct or indirect benefits to related persons of either organisation.
- Account for the five-year restriction: Determine whether the surviving organisation’s existing objects support its intended activities, considering the restriction on subsequent amendments.
- Complete financial audits and documentation: Arrange for both organisations’ books of accounts to be audited as on the merger date and compile the supporting documents prescribed under Form No. 112A.
- Meet the reporting deadline: Establish an internal filing process to ensure that the surviving NPO submits Form No. 112A within the prescribed timeframe.
TV Narendran as Tata International New Chairman
TV Narendran to succeed Noel Tata as Tata International chairman
Thachat Viswanath Narendran (born 2 June 1965) is an Indian business executive. He is currently the global CEO and Managing Director of Tata Steel, one of the largest steel producers in the world.
Career
Narendran joined Tata Steel in 1988 after completing his management degree from Indian Institute of Management Calcutta. He worked in the International Trading Division of Tata Steel from 1988 to 1997 wherein he spent five years in Dubai looking after Tata Steels’ exports to the Middle East.
From 1997 to 2001, he spent time in Tata Steels’ marketing and sales division and was involved in market development work for the Cold Rolling Mill Project, Supply Chain Management, Sales Planning, etc. From 2001 to 2003, he was the Chief of Marketing & Sales (Long Products) and played a key role in building the ‘Tata Tiscon’ brand and the distribution network for the same. From 2003 to 2005, he worked with B. Muthuraman, the then Managing Director of Tata Steel, as his Principal Executive Officer.[citation needed]
Before being appointed as MD – Tata Steel India and South East Asia, on 1 November 2013, Narendran was the Vice President – Safety & Flat Products Divisions of Tata Steel.[citation needed]
T. V. Narendran, CEO & Managing Director of Tata Steel Limited was the President of the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) for the year 2021-22. In May 2022, He was succeeded by Sanjiv Bajaj as the President of CII.
On 31 October 2017, he was appointed as the global CEO and MD of Tata Steel.
Tata Steel Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer TV Narendran will succeed Noel Tata as chairman of Tata International from November 12.
The leadership changes come against the backdrop of the ongoing dispute over governance and control within the Tata Group, involving Tata Trusts and Tata Sons. Noel Tata is stepping down from the boards of several group companies as he turns 70, in line with their retirement policies for non-executive directors.
Direct Tax Collections Rise 11.76% to Rs 14.42 Lakh Crore as on 10th Nov 2026
Direct Tax Collections Rise 11.76% to Rs 14.42 Lakh Crore as on 10th Nov 2026

Delhi Holiday Alert: 16 Nov 2026 Declared a Holiday for Chhath Puja
DRI Busts Foreign Currency Smuggling Syndicate at Kolkata Airport, Seizes Currency Worth ₹3.51 Crore
In a major strike against the cross-border smuggling of foreign currency, the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI), intercepted several passengers going abroad at Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose International (NSCBI) Airport, Kolkata, who were attempting to carry foreign currency out of the country.
Acting on specific intelligence, DRI officers intercepted 7 passengers in the early hours of 06.11.2026 on their journey to Bangkok. A thorough personal search of the passengers, including their hand baggage and checked-in baggage, led to the recovery and seizure of assorted foreign currency in USD, GBP collectively valued at valued at Rs. 3.12 crore.
The syndicate carriers used a sophisticated modus operandi and the currency was ingeniously concealed inside notebooks, in two-layered hidden compartments in trolley bags and in shoes. Some of it was hidden in the pockets of clothes packed in checked-in baggage, and in other cases deep inside both checked-in and hand baggage. On enquiry, the passengers could not produce any documents to establish ownership or lawful possession of the currency.
In total 7 members of the syndicate were arrested and charged with smuggling out the foreign currency in contravention of Customs Act read with FEMA Regulations.
In addition, few other passengers were also intercepted and search of their baggage led to recovery of foreign currency equivalent to Rs. 0.39 crore. The passengers were handed to Customs formation for further proceedings.
DRI remains determined to dismantle organised networks that facilitate the illicit outflow of foreign currency and undermine the country’s economic and fiscal stability. Through sustained, intelligence-led enforcement, DRI continues to safeguard India’s economic frontiers.
E-Way Bill Number Format to Expand from 1 January 2027
It is hereby informed that, in view of the substantial volume of E-Way Bills generated, the existing numbering capacity is expected to be exhausted. Accordingly, the following revisions in the numbering formats are proposed with effect from 1 January 2027
| Document Type | Existing Format | Proposed Format |
|---|---|---|
| E-Way Bill Number | 12 digits | 14 digits |
| Consolidated E-Way Bill Number | 10 digits | 11 digits |
All stakeholders, including taxpayers, GSPs, ERP/software providers and API integrators, are advised to make necessary modifications to their applications, APIs, database schemas and validation rules to accommodate the revised numbering formats.
The changes will be released in the Sandbox environment shortly for testing, and the relevant details will be published on the E-Way Bill Portal. Stakeholders are requested to ensure system readiness well before 1 January 2027 to facilitate a seamless transition and avoid any disruption to E-Way Bill-related operations.
CA. Mangesh Kinare, Vice President, ICAI, met Shri Devendra Fadnavis
CA. Mangesh Kinare, Vice President, ICAI, met Shri Devendra Fadnavis, Hon’ble Chief Minister of Maharashtra, to discuss matters concerning ICAI’s activities, especially in Maharashtra and ICAI’s contribution to Maharashtra’s overall progress.
FAST-DS Deadline Nears as Taxpayers Seek Clarity on Foreign Asset Disclosures
Many are knocking on the doors of tax authorities to cut through the confusion over a list of ambiguities in the mini-amnesty scheme for undisclosed foreign assets and income.
Will a taxpayer who is merely a signing authority for a foreign bank account but doesn’t own the funds get caught in the tax net after declaring as a signatory? How to segregate gifts and inheritances from other foreign assets which were acquired? Or, what if a foreign bank no longer has the statements of accounts which were opened years ago?
Questions like these and more are cropping up as the December 31 deadline nears for the Foreign Assets of Small Taxpayers-Disclosure Scheme, 2026 (FAST-DS), a one-time compliance initiative.The voluntary disclosure window, which opened on August 16, allows a person to regularise undeclared overseas stocks, properties, ESOPs, and earnings up to ₹1 crore without declaring sources of funds by paying a combined tax and penalty of 60%. Foreign assets up to ₹5 cr acquired with reported earnings can be legitimised with a ₹1 lakh fine.Despite the tax office responding to FAQs, taxpayers and professionals want the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) to clarify several unaddressed issues.
For instance, how to avoid tax and penalties on the quantum of bank deposits accumulated from the overseas earnings of a declarant when he was an NRI? Since NRIs’ foreign earnings aren’t taxed in India, deposits created from that income should not be taxed and penalised.Those who missed out on reporting, either due to ignorance or wrong advice, are anxious for answers. A declaration, once accepted, cannot be changed; the amount paid will not be refunded, and false information will invalidate the declaration. After December 31, persons who don’t declare under FAST-DS may face a higher financial burden if faced with proceedings under Black Money Act.
Ownership vs Authority
While a trust beneficiary or foreign account signatory has to report these facts under the ‘Foreign Assets’ (FA) Schedule in the I-T Return (ITR), it’s felt the same should not be extended to the scheme.
It’s suggested that the Board (or CBDT) confirm that an account over which the taxpayer holds only signing authority, with no financial interest, is not an undisclosed foreign asset for the purpose of the scheme, said a member of The Chamber of Tax Consultants, which is among the bodies to reach out to CBDT.Similarly, a beneficiary of a foreign trust has to report the information in the ITR. But some fear that disclosure under FAST-DS could bring them under the taxman’s lens even if the beneficiary owns no trust asset or hasn’t received funds from the trust.
“In cases where undisclosed foreign income is credited to a foreign bank account, it’s unclear whether the income or bank balance (asset) must be disclosed. An FAQ under the 2015 Scheme suggested that the asset has to be disclosed. FAST-DS doesn’t provide similar clarity. This is important as valuation of income and asset may differ. Another issue concerns foreign income on which Indian taxes have been paid but wasn’t disclosed in Schedule FA,” said Harshal Bhuta, co-founder and country co-head, international tax and FEMA, at Ascentium India.
Also, in cases where tax payer holds a foreign account jointly with a spouse and has contributed a part of the funds, there’s no mechanism for apportionment between joint holders.
An area of concern, says chartered accountant Ashish Karundia, relates to employees who inadvertently failed to report ESOPs in Schedule FA and subsequently didn’t offer dividend income to tax, despite having paid tax on shares as salary perquisites. “Such employees could face disproportionate and multiple layers of tax and compliance costs: withholding tax on dividends in overseas jurisdiction, a 60% levy in India for non-disclosure of dividend and a further ₹1 lakh for disclosure of underlying shares, irrespective of their value,” said Karundia.
Under the scheme, the fair market value of every asset is determined as on March 31, 2026, a clause that dampened enthusiasm for the scheme, thanks to the rupee’s slide against the dollar.
“Most are put off by the ₹1 crore limit, which today is a minuscule number. In the 2015 scheme, there was no limit. Many who are ready to pay and declare could not participate as the respective amounts breached ₹1 crore as per March 2026 value. Such a scheme should have higher limits of ₹100-200 crore to draw wider interest,” said Rajesh Shah, partner at Jayantilal Thakkar, a Mumbai-based CA firm.
Tax on Selling Gold in India (2026)
Selling gold in 2026? Here’s how much tax you may have to pay on your profits!
Tax on Selling Gold in India (2026)
| Instrument / Situation | Holding Period | Tax Treatment | Tax Rate |
| Physical Gold Physical Gold | Sold within 24 months | STCG | As per your Income Tax Slab |
| Sold after 24 months | LTCG | 12.5% without indexation | |
| ETFs ETFs | Sold within 12 months | STCG | As per your Income Tax Slab |
| Sold after 12 months | LTCG | 12.50% | |
| Digital Gold & Mutual Funds Digital Gold & Mutual Funds | Sold within 24 months | STCG | As per your Income Tax Slab |
| Sold after 24 months | LTCG | 12.5% without indexation | |
| Gift From Specified Relatives** | N/A | Tax Free | Nil |
| Gift From Non-Relatives** | N/A | Gift Tax | Taxable as per Slab if > ₹50,000 |
| Sovereign Gold Bonds – Interest | N/A | Interest Income | As per your Income Tax Slab |
| SGB – Redeemed After Maturity | 8 Years | Capital Gains | Fully Exempt* |
| SGB – Redeemed Before Maturity SGB – Redeemed Before Maturity | Sold within 12 months | STCG | As per your Income Tax Slab |
| Sold after 12 months | LTCG | 12.50% |
**Capital gains tax applies only when gold is sold.
*SGB tax exemption applies only if bought in the original issue and held till maturity.
₹1.25 lakh LTCG exemption applies only to equity, not gold or silver. Gold LTCG is taxed at 12.5% without indexation. SGB gains are tax-free only if held till 8-year maturity. 3% GST applies only to physical gold purchases.
Son gets income tax notice for Rs 33.23 lakh in property investment and cash: gets relief in ITAT
Mr Ram from Mandi Road got entangled in a dispute with the Income Tax Department after he bought a property, deposited a large amount of cash in his bank account but did not file any income tax return. However, the Income Tax Assessing Officer (AO) from Jaipur already had information from his sources that Ram had purchased a property for Rs 20.23 lakh and deposited Rs 13.04 lakh cash in his bank account. This is why the AO sent him an income tax notice asking to file ITR.
In response to the income tax notice, Mr Ram declared Rs 2.14 lakh income and filed the ITR. When the AO saw Ram’s ITR he classified the case as suspicious and eventually declared the property investment and cash deposit both as unexplained and started the proceedings against Ram. To reiterate, Ram was charged with evading tax on Rs 20.23 lakh unexplained property investment and Rs 13.04 lakh unexplained cash deposit.
Feeling aggrieved, Ram filed an appeal with the commissioner of appeals (CIT A). The CIT (A) decided to give Ram part relief by deleting the tax notice for Rs 20.33 lakh unexplained property but sustained the Rs 13.04 lakh unexplained cash tax notice. So Ram filed another appeal with ITAT Jaipur for the unexplained cash issue. On October 6, 2026 Ram won this case and now both the unexplained cash (ITAT Jaipur) and unexplained property (CIT A) tax notice was cancelled.
How did Ram win this case?
Chartered Accountant Varun Singhal said to ET Wealth Online that Ram won the case because he produced a notarised gift deed, with two witnesses, showing his mother gave him Rs 16 lakh on February 2, 2012 and this money was deposited by him in his bank account. Deposits in his bank account followed in February-March 2012. The mother’s money came from selling her old gold jewellery, which a registered valuer had valued at Rs 18.36 lakh as on March 31, 2011. The ITAT Jaipur also noted that a mother is a relative under Section 2(41) of the Income Tax law and gift from relatives are not taxed.
According to Singhal, you should take the following precautions:
- Prove where the donor got the money, not just that a gift was made.
- Keep papers from the time of the transaction (deed, valuation, jeweller’s invoice).
- Keep the deposit close to the gift date, with matching amounts.
- Keep the donor’s bank records too, if available.
ITAT Jaipur discussion
Chartered Accountant Nikhilesh Kataria representing Ram argued before ITAT Delhi that Ram’s mother sold her old jewellery (valued at Rs 18.36 lakh by a registered valuer in 2011) and gave Rs 16 lakh cash to Ram on February 3, 2012. However, the AO disbelieved this story as there were no supporting documents specifying the specifications of the gold items. CA Nikhilesh Kataria also argued that it is customary in the jewellery trade that when selling old jewellery only total weight shown and no separate specification of items are given in the invoice.
The other contention of the AO is that the weight of jewellery sold is much less than the total weight of gold mentioned in the valuation report. To this contention, CA Nikhilesh Kataria replied that Ram’s mother only sold 642.300 grams for Rs 16.1 lakh and gifted Rs 16 lakh to Ram. Moreover, CA Nikhilesh Kataria supported his argument with evidence namely Ram’s mother’s duly notarised gift deed which also has witnesses.
Mrs. Arti Rawat, ACIT appearing for the Income Tax Department supported the orders passed by the lower authorities and requested to confirm the addition of the unexplained incomes to Ram’s ITR.
ITAT Jaipur heard the arguments and said that the Gift Deed clearly mentions that the Gift given to Ram on February 4, 2012 and on this basis Ram deposited the said cash in his bank account.
ITAT Jaipur ruled: “This gift is from the mother only which is within the relatives as defined in Section 2(41). Further the assesee’s (Ram) mother in her old age gifted part of the amount from sale of her gold jewellery given as gift to the assessee, which cannot be doubted, since the same is supported by valid notarised Gift Deed with two witnesses and value of the jewels were determined by Registered Valuer. Thus the addition made by the AO is liable to be deleted.”
Changes to GST Registration Amendments: Key Updates and Requirements
Vide Notification No. 05/2026-Central Tax Dated:26.10.2026, Rule 21 of Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017, the provisions relating to amendment of registration under Rule 19 of the CGST Rules, 2017 have been substituted. The corresponding changes have been implemented on the GST portal.
1. Amendment of Principal Place of Business
- In case of amendment relating to the Principal Place of Business (PPOB), the application will continue to be examined by the Proper Officer in accordance with Rule 19 of Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017.
2. Amendment of other registration particulars
- For any other changes such as changes relating to the legal name of the business and addition, deletion or retirement of partners, directors, Karta etc., Additional Place of Business, and other amendments relating to particulars of FORM REG-01 other than the Principal Place of Business, the certificate of registration shall stand amended upon submission and online validation.
- Online verification of the mobile number and email address of the Primary Authorised Signatory and one selected Promoter/Partner/Director/Karta/Member/Trustee, etc., is mandatory.
- The said online verification of the mobile number and email address (OTP verification), can be done through the Common Portal using the following link:https://services.gst.gov.in/services/otpVerification which can also be accessed through: Services->Registration->OTP verification of GSTIN.
- A period of 3 days from the date of submission of the application will be provided for completing the prescribed OTP verification. If verification is not completed successfully within this period, the Application Reference Number (ARN) will not be generated.
- PAN, Director Identification Number (DIN) and Corporate Identification Number (CIN), wherever applicable, shall be validated online by the system. The ARN will be generated after successful completion of the required validations.
- The amended Registration Certificate shall be made available to the registered person on the common portal, wherever applicable, upon successful completion of the prescribed online verification and validations.
Proposed Amendments to Enhance GST Compliance: Key Takeaways from CBIC’s Consultation Paper
CBIC has released a 93-page consultation paper proposing an alternate mechanism for liability amendments and ITC adjustments.
Key proposals include:
🔹 GSTR-1/1A Improvements: Better classification of sales and supplies to ensure correct details are automatically reflected in GSTR-3B.
🔹 More Flexibility in GSTR-1A: Businesses can correct details of earlier periods and fix incorrect recipient GSTINs before filing GSTR-3B.
🔹 No Direct Changes to Tax Liability in GSTR-3B: Any mistakes in sales details must be corrected through GSTR-1 or GSTR-1A.
🔹 DRC-03 Invoice Linking: Linking tax payments with specific invoices to avoid paying tax twice and help buyers claim eligible ITC.
🔹 Separate RCM Statement (PMT-02B): A separate record to track tax paid under RCM and the ITC claimed against it.
🔹 ITC Reversal and Reclaim Statement (PMT-02A): ITC can be reclaimed only to the extent allowed, with a separate section in GSTR-3B for reporting these details.
🔹 PMT-10 for Excess ITC Reversal: A facility to correct cases where more ITC was permanently reversed than required in earlier periods.
🔹 Improved ISD Reporting: Clearer reporting of ineligible ITC without unnecessarily reducing the eligible ITC available to businesses.
🔹 Improved GSTR-2B: More accurate ITC details to make checking and matching purchase records easier.
🔹 Easier Discrepancy Reporting: PMT-04 can now also be used to report differences or errors in the new ITC statements.
Have suggestions? Now is the time to share them.
📅 Deadline: 30 November 2026.
📍 Submit your feedback at
https://innovateindia.mygov.in/ministry/ministry-of-finance/
Important Announcement: ICAI CA Foundation Examination Results (September 2026)
Important Announcement: ICAI CA Foundation Examination Results (September 2026)
The results of the Chartered Accountants Foundation Examination held in September 2026 is likely to be declared by the evening of 6th November 2026 and the same can be accessed by candidates on the website caresults.icai.org
It may be noted that for accessing the result at the above mentioned website, the candidate shall have to enter his/her Registration Number along with his/her Roll Number.
(Anand Kumar Chaturvedi) Additional Secretary (Exams)
Scheduled Maintenance Alert: e-Invoice Services Unavailability from 31 October to 1 November 2026
Advisory – Scheduled Maintenance of e-Invoice Services (31 October – 1 November 2026)
Dear Taxpayers,
Due to a scheduled infrastructure upgrade, certain e-Invoice-related services on the GST portal (https://einvoice.gst.gov.in) would remain temporarily unavailable during the following period:
Start: 31 October 2026, 9:00 AM (IST)
End: 1 November 2026, 1:00 PM (IST)
Affected services:
1. e-Invoice data retrieval and processing from IRPs.
2. Auto-population of e-Invoice data in GSTR-1.
3. e-Invoice JSON downloads through the portal and APIs.
Taxpayers and other stakeholders are advised to plan their activities accordingly. The affected services are expected to resume after completion of the maintenance.
The inconvenience caused is regretted.Thanks,
Team GSTN
New categories of supplies: New E-Invoicing Mandates for GST Taxpayers Effective January 2027
CBIC has notified new categories of supplies for the purpose of e invoicing, making e invoicing mandatory for the following transactions w.e.f. 1st January 2027:
a. supply of goods or services or both received from an unregistered person where the tax is payable on RCM basis.
b. import of services
Another compliance burden for GST taxpayers
CBIC issue Circular for GST Council Meeting Proposal implemention
CBIC issue Circular for #GST Council Meeting Proposal implemention
Circular 257 to 264

BREAKING: GST Circular No. 257/03/2026 : Guidelines for the handling applications for GST registration
GST Registration reforms that professionals have been waiting for!
Thank you, @cbic_india, for Circular No. 257/03/2026-GST.
- Prescribed document checklists and formats for different types of premises
- Clear guidelines on documents required for registration
- No unnecessary documents or presumptive queries
- Queries to be raised through FORM GST REG-03, with an opportunity to rectify deficiencies
- Defined timelines for processing applications
- Deemed approval if the officer fails to act within the prescribed timeline
- FAQs to address practical issues faced by taxpayers and professionals
A welcome step towards a more transparent, predictable and taxpayer-friendly GST registration process.
Hope these guidelines translate into better ground-level implementation!



Bombay High Court Empowers Employees with Right to Higher Pension under EPS, 1995
Bombay High Court has ruled that the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) cannot reject eligible private sector employees’ applications for higher pension under the Employees’ Pension Scheme (EPS), 1995, solely because their employer’s provident fund (PF) trust rules restrict contributions to the statutory wage ceiling.
According to a report by Livemint, the October 19 judgment, delivered by Justice Sandeep V. Marne, set aside EPFO orders rejecting applications from more than 40 employees of establishments including Abbott India, Tata Communications, Raymond Steel and BEST Undertaking. The court directed EPFO to process and allow the employees’ joint-option applications within eight weeks.
Why did EPFO reject the applications?
Some employers operate their own PF trusts because their establishments are exempted from the standard EPF arrangement. EPFO had rejected certain higher-pension applications on the grounds that these trusts’ internal rules capped contributions at the statutory wage ceiling or did not expressly permit employees to exercise the joint option for a higher pension.
The employees challenged the rejections, arguing that the rules governing their employers’ PF trusts could not override their entitlement under the EPS, 1995.
The joint option allows eligible employees and employers to seek a pension calculated on higher wages, subject to the scheme’s conditions. Employees who contributed to the PF on actual salaries exceeding the applicable wage ceiling may qualify for the higher-pension benefit, provided they meet the prescribed requirements.
What did the Bombay High Court say?
The court held that an employer’s PF trust rules could not, by themselves, be used to deny an otherwise eligible employee the opportunity to seek a higher pension.
According to Livemint, the court observed that PF trust rules generally govern provident fund contributions and do not determine an employee’s entitlement to a pension on higher wages under the EPS.
The judgment stated: “A joint option cannot be rejected on the ground that the Trust Rules either envisage a cap /ceiling or employer’s contribution or that Trust Rules did not provide for joint option on higher pension on the ground that employer did not remit pension contribution on the wages exceeding the ceiling.”
The court also considered the Supreme Court’s judgment in EPFO v. Sunil Kumar B., which upheld the 2014 EPS amendments. The Supreme Court had held that eligible employees who contributed to the PF on actual wages exceeding the statutory ceiling could not be barred from exercising the higher-pension option solely on that basis, subject to the scheme’s conditions.
The Bombay High Court further addressed situations in which employers could not produce historical records. It noted that alternative verification methods, including providing employees an opportunity to be heard, should be considered where relevant records were unavailable.
What happens next for the employees?
The High Court set aside the EPFO orders rejecting the applications and directed the authorities to process and allow the petitioners’ joint options within eight weeks. The petitions were allowed, with no order as to costs.
Does this mean all EPFO members qualify for a higher pension?
No. The ruling does not automatically make every EPFO member eligible for a higher pension. Employees must satisfy the applicable eligibility criteria and other requirements, including those relating to contributions and documentation.
The judgment clarifies that restrictions in an employer’s PF trust rules alone cannot be used to deny an otherwise eligible employee the statutory higher-pension option. The ruling therefore offers relief to the petitioners while reinforcing the distinction between PF trust rules and pension eligibility under the EPS, 1995.
Ministry of Corporate Affairs: BIG ROC COMPLIANCE UPDATE FY 2025-26
MCA Grants Major Relief to Companies – But LLPs Remain Outside the Extension!
The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA), vide General Circular No. 05/2026 dated 24 October 2026, has announced significant relief for companies regarding the filing of financial statements and annual returns for FY 2025-26.
Revised Filing Deadlines for Companies
31 December 2026 – Financial Statements
- AOC-4
- AOC-4 (CFS)
- AOC-4 (XBRL)
- AOC-4 NBFC (Ind AS)
AOC-4 CFS NBFC (Ind AS)
31 January 2027 – Annual Returns
MGT-7
MGT-7A
Key Benefit: Companies can submit the specified forms within these extended timelines without payment of additional filing fees. Normal statutory filing fees remain applicable.
! IMPORTANT: NO RELIEF FOR LLPS!
The above relaxation applies to companies and does not extend the statutory filing deadlines prescribed under the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008.
17 LLP Filing Deadlines for FY 2025-26:
Form 11 – Annual Return: 30 May 2026 (already overdue if not filed)
Form 8 – Statement of Account & Solvency: 30 October 2026
Delayed LLP filings attract additional fees based on the period of delay and whether the entity qualifies as a Small LLP.
LLP Late Filing Fee Structure:
- Up to 15 days: 1x normal filing fee
- 16-30 days: 2x to 4x
- 31-60 days: 4x to 8x
- 61-90 days: 6x to 12x
- 91-180 days: 10x to 20x
- 181-360 days: 15x to 30x
Beyond 360 days, further daily additional fees apply.
Other Important Clarifications:
The MCA relaxation does not extend the statutory timeline for holding Annual General Meetings (AGMs).
Filing after the respective extended deadlines will attract applicable additional fees.
LLPs should complete Form 8 filing by 30 October 2026 to avoid additional filing fees.
Professional Insight:
While the extension provides welcome compliance relief to companies, businesses and professionals must distinguish between the filing requirements applicable to companies and LLPs.
Timely statutory compliance is essential to avoid unnecessary financial penalties and regulatory complications.
Share this update with business owners, directors, designated partners, finance professionals and compliance teams.


₹1.64 lakh Foreign Tax Credit denied over late Form 67 filing
₹1.64 lakh Foreign Tax Credit denied over late Form 67 filing. ITAT Bangalore comes to the taxpayer’s rescue.
An Indian taxpayer paid ₹1.79 lakh in US taxes on income of around ₹9 lakh and claimed ₹1.64 lakh as Foreign Tax Credit in India.
But there was a catch: Form 67 was filed late.
Here’s what happened.
The taxpayer had earned income in the USA and paid tax there. He also disclosed the foreign income in his Indian ITR and claimed credit u/s 90 read with the India USA DTAA.
However, CPC denied the credit during return processing because Form 67 was not filed within the prescribed timeline.
His subsequent appeal also failed.
What did ITAT Bangalore say?
The Tribunal held that merely filing Form 67 late should not automatically disentitle a taxpayer from claiming Foreign Tax Credit.
The taxpayer had disclosed the foreign income in India and furnished Form 67 along with supporting evidence of US taxes paid.
The issue was procedural compliance, not whether the foreign tax had actually been paid.
The legal principle
There is an important distinction between a substantive right and a procedural requirement.
Where foreign income is disclosed and tax is actually paid abroad, a procedural delay should not automatically defeat legitimate relief against double taxation.
The Tribunal relied on earlier judicial precedents and observed that the applicable rules did not expressly provide for automatic forfeiture of FTC due to late filing.
Did the taxpayer immediately get ₹1.64 lakh? Not yet.
ITAT Bangalore restored the matter to the Assessing Officer for fresh examination on merits.
The AO must verify the foreign tax credit claim and supporting documents before deciding the eligible amount.
The appeal was allowed for statistical purposes. The ruling protects the taxpayer’s right to have the claim examined, but does not guarantee the entire credit.
What should taxpayers do?
✅ Disclose foreign income correctly in the Indian ITR.
✅ Maintain evidence of foreign income and taxes paid.
✅ File Form 67 within the prescribed timeline.
✅ Reconcile the foreign tax credit claimed with supporting documents.
The ruling is a reminder that genuine tax relief should not be denied solely for a procedural lapse. But taxpayers should not treat judicial relief as a substitute for timely compliance.
Common Reasons for Received an Income Tax Department Notice
Avoiding Income Tax Notices is always easier than dealing with them. However, if you receive a notice from the Income Tax Department (ITD), timely and correct action is critical. Learn more on how to handle the Notices such as Scrutiny, Discrepancy, Mistakes, Non-disclosure.
1. Possible Common Reasons for getting an IT Notice
- Non-Filing of Income tax returns or filing after due date
- Scrutiny at random
- Discrepancy in your income tax returns
- TDS Mismatch between ITR and 📜Form 168 of IT Act 2025 (Form 26AS of IT Act 1961)
- Ignoring income received from the previous employer
- Demanding a proof of documentation
- High Value Transactions not matching with declared income (ITR vs AIS)
- Transferring the asset in the name of spouse or children
- High number of Gift Transactions
- Non-Payment of Taxes
- Income Tax Return not filed or filed after the due date
- Set-off errors or loss claim discrepancies
- Non-disclosure of Foreign Income and Foreign Assets
- Investments in the name of family members
- Crypto / VDA transactions not reported
- Huge Cash Deposits

2. Various types of Important Notices and the reasons for Such
2.1. Notice under Section 142(1) – Inquiry before assessment:
Notice under Section 268(1) of IT Act 2025 (Section 142(1) of IT Act 1961) is usually served to call upon documents and details from the taxpayers.
- This notice is basically sent after notice u/s 142(1) has already been sent. It means AO was not satisfied with the produced documents or may be AO has not received any documents
- If assessee do not comply with the provisions of this section
- It may result in Best Judgment Assessment u/s 271 of IT Act 2025 (u/s 144 of IT Act 1961), or
- Penalised under Sec 271(1)(b) i.e. Rs10,000 for each failure
- Prosecution under Sec 481 of IT Act 2025 (Sec 276D of IT Act 1961) which may extend upto 1 year with or without fine.
2.2. Notice under Section 143(2) – Scrutiny Notice
- This notice is basically sent after notice u/s 142(1) has already been sent. It means AO was not satisfied with the produced documents or may be AO has not received any documents.
- This notice can be served upto 6 months after completion of relevant assessment year.
- The AO can reduce the income below the returned income and can assess the loss higher than the returned loss under Scrutiny Assessment as per Sec 270(3) of IT Act 2025 (Sec 143(3) of IT Act 1961).
- The notice might ask you to produce documents in support of deductions, exemptions, allowances, reliefs other claim of loss you have made and provide proof of all sources of income.
- Section 143(2) enables the Assessing Officer to make a regular assessment after a detailed inquiry.
- If assessee do not comply with the provisions of this section:
- It may result in Best Judgment Assessment u/s 144
- Penalised under Sec 271(1)(b) i.e. Rs10,000 for each failure
- Prosecution under Sec 276D which may extend upto 1 year with or without fine.
2.3. Notice under Section 143(1) – Letter of Intimation
Three types of notices can be sent under section 143(1)
- Intimation where the notice is to be simply considered as final assessment of your returns since the AO has found the return filed by you to be matching with his computation under section 143(1).
- A refund notice, where the officer’s computation shows amount excessively paid by the assessee.
- Demand Notice where the officer’s computation shows shortfall in your tax payment. The notice will ask you to pay up the tax due within 30 days.
- Time limit for the notice to be served is up to 1 year after completion of relevant assessment year.
2.4. Notice under Section 148 – Income escaping assessment
- If AO has reasons to believe that any income chargeable to tax has escaped assessments, he may assess or reassess such income, which is chargeable to tax and has escaped assessment.
- To initiate proceedings under Sec 279 of IT Act 2025 (Sec 147 of IT Act 1961), the AO is required to have a reason necessarily.
- The onus of stating the reasons is on AO.
2.5. Notice under Section 156 – Notice of Demand
- Where any tax, interest, penalty, fine or any other sum is payable in consequence of any order passed, the AO shall serve upon the assessee a notice of demand, specifying the sum do payable.
- The tax so demanded is payable, generally within 30 days of the service of notice of demand, which may be reduced by the AO with prior approval of JCIT.
- In case of delay in payment of tax, the assessee shall be deemed to be in default and liable to pay simple interest u/s 411(2) of IT Act 2025 (u/s 220(2) of IT Act 1961) @ 1% for every month or part thereof from the end of the period allowed u/s 289 of IT Act 2025 (u/s 156 of IT Act 1961), further penalty u/s 412(1) of IT Act 2025 (u/s 221(1) of IT Act 1961) may be imposed.
2.6. Notice under Section 139(9) – Defective Return
- What is a Defective Return? – A return shall be considered as a defective return unless it is accompanied by the required documents under the Act. e.g. Annexures, statements, proofs of tax, reports etc.
- If the AO considers that the return filed by the assessee is defective, he may intimate the defect to the assessee and gave him an opportunity to rectify the defect within 15 days from the date of such intimation or within such extended period as may be allowed by the AO.
- If the defect is not rectified within the aforesaid period, the return shall be considered as an invalid return and accordingly the assessee will be deemed to have furnished no return.
2.7. Notice under Section 245 – Set off of refunds against tax remaining payable
- Where any refund is pending to the taxpayer and also any amount is payable by the taxpayer for previous years, the AO may adjust the amount to be refunded with the amount payable by the taxpayer. Basically, it can be related to the ‘inter adjustment of transactions’.
- Notice under Section 438 of IT Act 2025 (Section 245 of IT Act 1961) is more of intimation letter and less of demand notice.
- This communication is an intimation proposing the refund adjustments. It is not independent notice. If the taxpayer disagrees with the adjustment, they needs to disagree with the outstanding demand in Income tax portal
3. Documents needed in case of a defective Notice?
- Most corrective actions against a defective notice require revisiting the IT return completely.
- Hence, the tax preparer needs all the documents that are used in the original IT Return preparation to prepare a corrective IT Return.
- To make sure that the response to the defective notice is accepted, one must pay attention to the revision / correction carefully.
4. How to respond to a Defective Notice u/s 139(9)?
Follow the below steps to submit a response to the defective notice issued u/s 139(9)
- Login to ITD e-Filing Portal
- Go to Pending Actions >> E proceedings and click on ‘Response to Notice u/s 263(9) of IT Act 2025 (u/s 139(9) of IT Act 1961)’
- Check the details like ITR, AY, e-Filing Acknowledgement Number, CPC Reference Number, Notice Date and Click the “Submit” button
- All the identified defects from the filed ITR is displayed to the taxpayers. Choose YES/NO from the ‘Do you agree with defect?’ column.
- If you Choose ‘YES’, Upload the new corrected XML, and Click ‘Submit’ button to submit.
- If you Choose ‘NO’, Enter the response under the Assessee Remarks column and Submit.
CA Inter Result is announced, Rankholders List
CA Inter Result is announced.
Congratulations to everyone who passed

Rankholders of CA Intermediate September 2026 Attempt

ICICI Bank Revision in service charges w.e.f. Dec 01, 2026
Certain service charges for your Savings Account are being revised effective Dec 01, 2026. The revised charges applicable for the Account are as follows:
Revision in service charges Associated with your Savings Account
| of Charge | Existing Charges | Revised Charges w.e.f. Dec 01, 2026 |
| Cash Transactions (Deposits and withdrawals at Branches and deposits in Cash Recycler Machines) | Number Limit – 3 complimentary transactions per month each for deposits & withdrawals. Thereafter, ₹150 per transaction.Value Limit – Complimentary up to ₹1 lakh per month each for deposits & withdrawals. Thereafter, ₹3.5 per ₹1,000 or ₹150, whichever is higher.If the threshold of both number and value limit is crossed for the same transaction, the higher of the charges mentioned above pertaining to number limit or value limit will apply. | Number Limit – 3 complimentary transactions per month each for deposits & withdrawals. Thereafter, ₹150 per transaction.Value Limit – Complimentary up to ₹1 lakh per month each for deposits & withdrawals. Thereafter, ₹4 per ₹1,000 or ₹150, whichever is higher.If the threshold of both number and value limit is crossed for the same transaction, the higher of the charges mentioned above pertaining to number limit or value limit will apply. |
| ECS Debit Returns | ₹500 per instance for financial reasons. (Maximum recovery will be applicable for 3 instances per month for the same mandate) | For financial reasons -1 st return: ₹5002 nd and 3 rd return: ₹550 each(Maximum recovery will be applicable for 3 instances per month for the same mandate) |
GST is applicable on all mentioned charges.
For more details visit official ICICI bank website
2.317 kg of 24-carat gold bars seized under Customs Act )5 persons arreste)
DRI busts well-organised gold smuggling syndicate at Mumbai Airport
2.317 kg of 24-carat gold bars seized under Customs Act
Valued at approx. Rs. 3.47 crore
5 persons arrested for concealing, removing, handling and delivering the smuggled gold
On 20.10.2026, acting on specific intelligence, DRI officers intercepted 2 passengers arriving from Dubai on an Emirates flight at Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport. Simultaneously, another team caught 2 persons in the airport parking area and recovered a purse containing gold bars.
Investigations revealed the role of an airport staff member who received the gold from the passengers and carried it outside the airport premises. DRI’s swift action traced and intercepted him at his residence.

Rajasthan Police Cyber Advisory, Keep Your WhatsApp Account Secure
Cyber scammers can misuse your WhatsApp account through fake QR codes, OTPs, and social engineering. Once they gain control, they may ask your contacts for money in the name of medical treatment or emergencies.
To stay safe, keep these in mind:
1. Do not scan unknown QR codes and avoid suspicious links.
2. Do not share OTP, verification codes, or 2-Step Verification PIN with anyone.
3. Keep 2-Step Verification enabled and regularly check Linked Devices.
4. Immediately log out from unknown devices.
5. Do not install unknown apps or Remote Access apps, and do not share your screen.
6. If someone asks for money, verify their identity via a phone call.
If you suspect your account has been hacked: Re-register WhatsApp with your number, log out from unknown devices, and alert your contacts.
- Cyber Helpline: 1930
- Cyber Helpdesk: 9256001930 | 9257510100
- Complaint: cybercrime.gov.in
Stay alert, stay safe.
